1nt + 1nt = ?? how would you evaluate this 15 count
#1
Posted 2010-March-17, 04:18
#2
Posted 2010-March-17, 04:35
#3
Posted 2010-March-17, 04:54
#4
Posted 2010-March-17, 05:01
If you have a way to know if partner has a 4 card minor use it, start with 2♣ and bid something forcing next, ideal auction:
1NT-2♣
2♥-2♠
3♣-4♣
#5
Posted 2010-March-17, 05:03
#6
Posted 2010-March-17, 05:03
If I had a way of determining a minor suit fit, and a mild slam try, I'd bid that.
Without such methods, I think 3NT is much better than 4NT - there's not that many hands you want to be in slam.
--Always remember you're unique. Just like everyone else.
#8
Posted 2010-March-17, 06:19
#9
Posted 2010-March-17, 06:45
#10
Posted 2010-March-17, 07:06
3♣-3♥(3244, 14+ HCP)
That's what one partner and I play. Kinda cool for this hand.
-P.J. Painter.
#11
Posted 2010-March-17, 07:18
#12
Posted 2010-March-17, 08:09
#13
Posted 2010-March-17, 08:11
But honestly, either you have methods to find a 44 minor slam or you're probably better off bidding 3NT.
#14
Posted 2010-March-17, 08:46
#16
Posted 2010-March-17, 09:02
mikegill, on Mar 17 2010, 08:18 AM, said:
There is another use for the 4♠ bid. Whether it is better or worse than your use is a matter of opinion.
In situations where 4NT is a quantitative raise and 4♠ is an otherwise undefined call, one can differentiate between a strong invitation (one that should be accepted unless partner is a dead minimum) and a weak invitation (one that should be accepted only if partner is a full maximum). 4♠ is the weaker invite, and 4NT is the stronger invite. So, for example, in the simplest case, opposite a 15-17 1NT opening, responder, with 16 HCP and an otherwise unremarkable hand would bid 4♠ requesting a 6NT bid if partner had the full 17 HCP maximum; but with 17 HCP and an otherwise unremarkable hand he would bid 4NT requesting a 6NT bid unless partner had a minimum 15 HCP.
I don't recall specifically where I found this notion. It may have been from the Granovetter's now defunct Bridge Today magazine.
#17
Posted 2010-March-17, 12:02
#18
Posted 2010-March-17, 12:06
goobers, on Mar 17 2010, 01:02 PM, said:
Tsk tsk. hehe....
3NT for me, but what do I know? (That said, the treatment fro 4♠ makes sense to me....)
"gwnn" said:
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
#19
Posted 2010-March-17, 12:39
kenrexford, on Mar 17 2010, 08:06 AM, said:
3♣-3♥(3244, 14+ HCP)
That's what one partner and I play. Kinda cool for this hand.
That's not a good use for that sequence. It is much too specific in terms of pattern and pt count.
#20
Posted 2010-March-17, 13:18
straube, on Mar 17 2010, 01:39 PM, said:
kenrexford, on Mar 17 2010, 08:06 AM, said:
3♣-3♥(3244, 14+ HCP)
That's what one partner and I play. Kinda cool for this hand.
That's not a good use for that sequence. It is much too specific in terms of pattern and pt count.
I'm not sure how you know this.
I mean, in general, overly specific meanings are a bad idea if you cannot cover other equally occurring hand patterns.
But, if you have a boatload of different options to handle a boatload of different patterns, how is that a bad thing simply because of the specificity?
I mean, would it be a bad thing to play a 1NT opening as showing 15-17 HCP simply because you limit the call to a 3-point range? Would it be bad to then have a 2♠ rebid after Stayman show 4-5 spades and 2-3 hearts simply because there are so many other patterns that need to be covered? Would it be bad for a 3♠ call after Responder in that sequence sets spades as trumps to show a spade control simply because there are three other suits, of which you have said nothing yet about their controls or lack thereof? Would it be bad to have a 5♠ response to 4NT then show two key cards plus the spade Queen simply because you might have a number of other holdings?
In other words, you cannot know whether this use for this sequence is "too specific" unless you also know what other options are systemically available.
-P.J. Painter.
1nt (15-17) - P - ??