Bidding question
#1
Posted 2010-January-31, 14:33
♠ KJ965
♥ A
♦ 985
♣ Q1085
What do you bid?
#3
Posted 2010-January-31, 14:45
#4
Posted 2010-January-31, 14:57
#6
Posted 2010-January-31, 15:04
straube, on Jan 31 2010, 03:58 PM, said:
1S showed 5, so why would partner bid 1N with 3 spades? Generally people try to play 8 card major suit fits!
#8
Posted 2010-January-31, 15:31
♠XX
♥KQJxx
♦AK10
♣KJx
#9
Posted 2010-January-31, 15:40
waubrey, on Jan 31 2010, 04:31 PM, said:
♠XX
♥KQJxx
♦AK10
♣KJx
no opener cannot have that hand, no alert.
opener is limited to 11-13 or 12-14 depending on your range.
opener would rebid 2c usually.
For me I would rebid 2nt showing 17.
#10
Posted 2010-January-31, 15:56
Seriously how are we supposed to answer if you don't tell us the range of 1NT, then say "but partner could have this hand" which everyone but you would think is too good for 1NT?
#11
Posted 2010-January-31, 16:02
waubrey, on Jan 31 2010, 04:31 PM, said:
♠XX
♥KQJxx
♦AK10
♣KJx
lol
#12
Posted 2010-January-31, 18:43
#13
Posted 2010-January-31, 18:49
The_Hog, on Jan 31 2010, 07:43 PM, said:
Because if partner is 2533 with 12-14 you're an overwhelming favorite to make 1N, so there's no need to play 2 of a black suit in a 4-3 or 5-2 fit 1 trick higher?
#14
Posted 2010-January-31, 19:04
waubrey, on Feb 1 2010, 09:31 AM, said:
♠XX
♥KQJxx
♦AK10
♣KJx
Most people here open 1NT with a five card major so they would always have a maximum of 14 for a 1NT rebid. Anyway your example is too good for a 15-17 1NT opening and is enough to open 1♥ and rebid 2NT over 1♠.
But lots of people don't open 1NT with a five card major which creates a real problem if the hand was a bit weaker than your example, e.g.
♠xx
♥KQJxx
♦AQx
♣KJx
'Standard' bidding doesn't really have an answer to this. But more than a 4 point range for 1NT is not really playable so I think this hand cannot rebid 1NT after 1 ♠ response and has to try 2♣ instead, then guess what to do next if partner gives preference to 2♥.
Either way, you should assume partner has no more than 14 HCP so passing is best.
#15
Posted 2010-January-31, 19:28
PhantomSac, on Feb 1 2010, 07:49 AM, said:
The_Hog, on Jan 31 2010, 07:43 PM, said:
Because if partner is 2533 with 12-14 you're an overwhelming favorite to make 1N, so there's no need to play 2 of a black suit in a 4-3 or 5-2 fit 1 trick higher?
Pd is highly likely to have 3C. She does not have 3S - no raise to 2, she does not have 6H - no 2H bid. She does not have a 4 card D suit - no 2D bid.
I would MUCH rather play 2C in my 5-3 fit than 1NT thank you very much!
#16
Posted 2010-January-31, 19:34
The_Hog, on Jan 31 2010, 08:28 PM, said:
I would MUCH rather play 2C in my 5-3 fit than 1NT thank you very much!
How can you have a 5-3 fit when you only have 4 clubs?
#17
Posted 2010-January-31, 19:49
barmar, on Feb 1 2010, 08:34 AM, said:
The_Hog, on Jan 31 2010, 08:28 PM, said:
I would MUCH rather play 2C in my 5-3 fit than 1NT thank you very much!
How can you have a 5-3 fit when you only have 4 clubs?
roflmao. My eyes are getting bad. I was sure I had a 5-5 in the blacks. Sorry all, disregard previous stupid comments. I pass also!