1N-2N invit Are you sure you know what it means?
#1
Posted 2010-January-26, 22:24
#2
Posted 2010-January-26, 22:49
I suspect that the "right" answer is to be slightly more aggressive in most situations because this reduces the odds that you play in the lousy contract of 2NT. Thus I'd say somewhere between c and d would usually be correct, and I picked answer c.
You're right that there's some additional inference playing weak notrump in 3rd/4th when partner is a passed hand, but I'd still say that partner should really only bid a 2NT invite like this with an absolute maximum passed hand and that the answer is still more like b.
Note that tendencies opposite a sequence like 1NT-2♣-2♦-2NT may be a little different, because partner might push somewhat to look for a major suit fit.
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#3
Posted 2010-January-26, 23:10
Maybe there is way to answer this mathematically or using simulation but nothing obvious springs to mind.
Count me for b (or c). The desire to avoid playing 2NT means that you might lean towards accepting slightly more than half the time, but still I really doubt it can be optimal to accept with any non-minimum (whatever that means). I'd guess the optimal strategy would lead to accepting on more than 50% of hands and less than 60% of hands.
#4
Posted 2010-January-27, 00:21
#5
Posted 2010-January-27, 00:25
George Carlin
#6
Posted 2010-January-27, 00:41
gwnn, on Jan 26 2010, 10:25 PM, said:
This is exactly what I was thinking.
#7
Posted 2010-January-27, 00:46
At Imps: bid 3NT with any non minimum.
At Pairs: bid 3NT with an above average hand.
It conflicts with this meta agreement we have to avoid both hands going nuts at imps:
At imps any invite is agressive and the 'accepting' hand should not compensate at all, since the invitee has already done that! We struggle to keep this agreement, but we dont miss many games
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#8
Posted 2010-January-27, 02:35
Assuming we are playing standard 2NT bids, I generally go with almost all 16s and pass with almost all 15s - and wish partner had asked me a more useful question about my hand.
#9
Posted 2010-January-27, 02:42
George Carlin
#10
Posted 2010-January-27, 20:31
i already bid 1nt, leave me in peace
pass like a man
or bid 3nt like a man
Just dont invite me because i never pass, 2nt is the crappiest contract, i aint playing it.
#11
Posted 2010-January-28, 15:12
What opener should do, depends on what your strategy is: invite heavy, accept light. Or invite light, accept heavy. In the first, accept with all non-minimums and in the second, accept with maximums and anything that looks like maximum. It is not only HCP that matter.
#12
Posted 2010-January-29, 11:49
nigel_k, on Jan 27 2010, 06:10 AM, said:
No, because the average is not exactly in the middle of the range.
#13
Posted 2010-January-29, 12:49