[babalu1997]

It was in fact the opp who suffered the indignity of opening this hand and then going for -200 in matchpoints

AJTX
KXXX
KQXXX
VOID

Now we open 4 card suits up the line, weak nt 12-14, no canape( THIS IS NOT SUFFICIENT TO CANAPE OR REVERSE ANYWAY), no miniroman.

I think i would have opened 1 hearts, and pass 1nt by partner or bid as little as i could if he bid something else.

However, could there be an argument in favor of simply not opening this hand?

The opp opened 1 diamond and reversed to 2 hearts after a 1nt response, contract was down 1, his partner, as expected, was chockfull of clubs.

thanks

[mcphee]

Pass would just not be a choice, this is a decent hand. The question to me is should you pass 1NT if that is the response, a reverse is just a cruel joke. I would rebid 2D and hope nothing terrible happens.

[spotlight7]

Hi:

Canape and reverse bidding are two much different methods of bidding.

Canape bidding does not show any extra values, reverse bidding shows 'extras.'

Canape is bidding your longer suit at your second turn to bid.

Reverse bidding is bidding your suits(longer first) in a way that partner needs to go to the three level to prefer your first bid suit.

1D-1H-1S is not a reverse while 1D-1NT-2H is a reverse.

If you open 1major and partner bids 1N, your next bid is 2D

Yes, partner often has lots of clubs, but after 1H-1NT they will also often have 2/3+ diamonds.

Passing is not a winning option here unless you are only looking at this one result.
I once overcalled a 3C preempt with AQ10xxx and a 16HCP hand, it went X and I went minus 1,400. I still overcall with decent six card suits and 16 HCP since it works most of the time.

The other pair that bid 1D-1NT-2H has no idea of proper bidding.

It was be fairly normal to see 1D-1NT-2D all pass here.
Partner did not hold 2-3 Ds?

Regards,
Robert

[ochinko]

I play 5 cM so 1♦, then pass 1NT hiding my disappointment for not hearing 1M.

Even though the hand is not strong enough for a reverse, doesn't mean it isn't excellent. Not opening it is losing in the long run. Most of the time partner partner will have something like 3325 so I wouldn't consider rebidding ♦ even at imps.

[jjbrr]

Easy pass of 1NT

[ArtK78]

While a pass of 1NT might work, it is not something that I would do.

I rebid 2♦ and hope for the best. If partner is 3-3-1-6 I will regret this, but most other cases work out well. We could have a 9 card diamond fit.

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

1D.

The adv. of 1D is, that 1H takes away the option, that p raises to 2D.
After a 1NT response you can either Pass or bid 2D.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[nigel_k]

It's much too good to pass initially and not nearly good enough to reverse. The only real decision is whether to pass 1NT or rebid 2♦. I would prefer to rebid 2♦ and don't consider it particularly close but plenty of good players would pass.

[hrothgar]

nigel_k, on Jan 25 2010, 11:14 PM, said:

It's much too good to pass initially and not nearly good enough to reverse. The only real decision is whether to pass 1NT or rebid 2♦. I would prefer to rebid 2♦ and don't consider it particularly close but plenty of good players would pass.

Agree with Nigel

[peachy]

Pass would be very unwise. This hand is a completely normal 1D opening. The problem comes second round if bidding goes (uncontested) 1D-1NT. Should my rebid be Pass or 2D? I would rebid 2D.

[Cyberyeti]

Open 1♦, if I play inverted minors (so partner might have a bad hand with diamond support he didn't fancy bidding 3♦ with) bid 2♦, if not pass 1N.

[bid_em_up]

I would always open 2♦. I would always bid 2♦ over 1N.
The void is an asset in a suit contract and a defect in NT play.

It's quite probable that partner's suit is clubs. If the suit is solid (AKQxxxx), he cannot possibly have an outside entry to get to his hand to cash it, not to mention some people would have already bid 2♣ with this holding. If the suit is not solid (KJ86542), he cannot have enough entries to hand to be able to establish the suit and then return to hand to cash any remaining winners. However, if the suit is not solid, he will have scattered values in the other three suits, all of which will help strengthen our hand in suit play.

jmoo.

[Free]

Seems like an easy 1♦-1NT-pass to me. You opened the suit you agreed to open, and you don't have a decent rebid (and if any, it's 2♦, definitely not 2♥).

[jikl]

1♦ 1NT 2♦ for me.

Sean

[Little Kid]

Seems obvious to bid 1♦ here, just unlucky to have an uncontested auction with 1N coming back to you. As for a reverse to 2♥, it has nowhere near enough strength to do this and on top of that you are bidding a known misfit vulnerable at matchpoints!

[hotShot]

The hand is to good to pass.
I would pass a 1NT bid from partner and correct a 2♣ answer to 2♦.

[andy_h]

Opening 1♥ is ill advised. The worst doesn't always happen so open your longest suit, 1♦. Sometimes the opponents will also interfere and it would also help you out, so don't try to plan too deeply. That goes for pass as well, which is definitely taking a rebid plan too far.

[Hanoi5]

I'll open 1♦ and rebid the suit over 1NT.

[jdonn]

The rebid problem is certainly not a reason to pass this hand for three reasons. One is that it's clearly too good, most of us would even open it a bit lighter without thinking twice. The second is that most auctions won't create a rebid problem, like partner bidding a major or making a negative double. The third is that even if partner bids 1NT then either pass or 2♦ will probably work ok so it's not even a serious problem.

[billw55]

In general agree that this doesn't really seem to be a problem. Partner's failure to bid one of a major, or even to raise diamonds, really downgrades this hand. Personally I would put the brakes on as fast as possible, passing 1NT, but I have no complaint with 2♦ either.

I am more interested in what to choose if partner bids 1♥/♠ over 1♦. Now the hand has gone up in value - enough to splinter?