Would you go 2 over 1 F.G. with this? Evaluation strikes again...
#1
Posted 2009-November-19, 07:14
♠Kx
♥KQxx
♦Jxx
♣Kxxx
Your partner opens 1♠ after the dealer passes, what's your bid?
wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:
rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:
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#2
Posted 2009-November-19, 07:16
#4
Posted 2009-November-19, 07:20
#5
Posted 2009-November-19, 07:39
-gwnn
#6
Posted 2009-November-19, 07:48
Roland
Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
#7
Posted 2009-November-19, 08:00
Codo, on Nov 19 2009, 08:48 AM, said:
Exactly! If you have that partner, bid 2♣. But if you have the partner that frequently does have crap ...
-gwnn
#8
Posted 2009-November-19, 08:01
Suppose I bid 1NT, forcing. If partner rebids 2NT or higher, no problem. If partner rebids 2♠ or 2♥, I could decide to GF now. If partner bids 2♦ or 2♣, I could choose to bid 3NT. But, if partner passes 1NT, he decided right.
-P.J. Painter.
#9
Posted 2009-November-19, 08:33
#10
Posted 2009-November-19, 08:44
We are all connected to each other biologically, to the Earth chemically, and to the rest of the universe atomically.
We're in the universe, and the universe is in us.
#11
Posted 2009-November-19, 08:47
billw55, on Nov 19 2009, 09:00 AM, said:
Codo, on Nov 19 2009, 08:48 AM, said:
Exactly! If you have that partner, bid 2♣. But if you have the partner that frequently does have crap ...
The partner with the crap rebids 2♠ over 2♣ and passes your 2NT call
the Freman, Chani from the move "Dune"
"I learned long ago, never to wrestle with a pig. You get dirty, and besides, the pig likes it."
George Bernard Shaw
#12
Posted 2009-November-19, 09:03
Help!
#14
Posted 2009-November-19, 09:11
This depends on partner's opening style, I suppose with an unknown p I would GF.
#15
Posted 2009-November-19, 09:23
kenrexford, on Nov 19 2009, 09:01 AM, said:
Suppose I bid 1NT, forcing. If partner rebids 2NT or higher, no problem. If partner rebids 2♠ or 2♥, I could decide to GF now. If partner bids 2♦ or 2♣, I could choose to bid 3NT. But, if partner passes 1NT, he decided right.
The OP suggested that 2/1 is gf...that method ALWAYS (to my knowledge) means that 1N is F1. Therefore opener will never pass 1N unless he has psyched.
Having said that, I agree with Gnasher's post (all of it)
Helene: arguing that 1N 3N should be reserved for hands that have upgraded is not, imo, accurate. Another reason for 1N then 3N is to warn partner, who may be looking at a hand just under jumpshift values, NOT to get excited, as he surely would were we to gf immediately. Thus I (and others) will sometimes respond 1N or make a limit bergen raise on hands where we, as responder, are always intending to bid game but don't want partner to become too aggressive on good hands. These hands are usually very 'soft', as is the one under consideration.
#16
Posted 2009-November-19, 09:29
I also agree with the onenotrumpers, though less comfortably so red at IMPs.
#17
Posted 2009-November-19, 10:06
#18
Posted 2009-November-19, 10:25
#19
Posted 2009-November-19, 10:27
pooltuna, on Nov 19 2009, 09:47 AM, said:
billw55, on Nov 19 2009, 09:00 AM, said:
Codo, on Nov 19 2009, 08:48 AM, said:
Exactly! If you have that partner, bid 2♣. But if you have the partner that frequently does have crap ...
The partner with the crap rebids 2♠ over 2♣ and passes your 2NT call
Well if 2♣ is game forcing that's not really an option
-gwnn
#20
Posted 2009-November-19, 10:54
jdonn, on Nov 19 2009, 11:25 AM, said:
Josh you should know by now being an underbidder on the forums is a fate worse than death. Underbidders must where a scarlet "U" on their foreheads. Mine is permanently stained.
1N is very easy. In many continuations I will GF this. In others I will simply invite.
When is a balanced, aceless 12 ever a game force?
When the "an opening bid facing an opening bid produces game" theorem was introduced, people were passing these hands.
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Prilosec helps with this.
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