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Rock crusher How to handle?

#1 User is offline   bd71 

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Posted 2009-November-12, 16:01

Scoring: IMP

2C-2D*

*Agreement is that 2H is a bust, so 2D shows something


Dealt this hand today at MPs with a pickup partner. But let's imagine it's IMPs so we want to push harder for slam.

Is there a good way to explore a slam, or do you just have to decide whether or not to take the leap half-blind?

Complete auction and dummy were:

2C-2D
3N-AP

xxx
Axxxxx
xx
xx

Making 7 after I take the JC lead, opps hold up twice on QJ of spades, discard their club stopper while I'm running diamonds, and LHO is squeezed with AS and 3 hearts.
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#2 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-November-12, 16:07

I assume that we are not playing Kokish (which makes this easier).

If 2 "shows something," then is 2NT forcing? I don't understand the 3NT call. I mean, if 2NT is not forcing, then I suppose I'll either make up a call like 3 or something or I'll make some sort of big jump in notrump, like 4NT or 5NT. Probably 5NT.

That said, why is partner passing 3NT with six hearts? What, 2NT is not forcing but 3NT is gambling?!?!?
"Gibberish in, gibberish out. A trial judge, three sets of lawyers, and now three appellate judges cannot agree on what this law means. And we ask police officers, prosecutors, defense lawyers, and citizens to enforce or abide by it? The legislature continues to write unreadable statutes. Gibberish should not be enforced as law."

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#3 User is offline   awm 

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Posted 2009-November-12, 16:11

It's not clear to me that you really missed something here. Say opponents take the spade ace at first opportunity. Now you have only 2+2+4+3 is eleven tricks. Your only shot at twelve is a heart-club squeeze, which is somewhat against the odds (requires the long hearts and long clubs in the same hand). Of course, if opponents lead hearts and then lead hearts again when they win the spade ace you are cut off from dummy and have no play at all (admittedly a heart lead is not that likely). Basically you took a lot of tricks because opponents misdefended....

In any case, I like bidding 2NT over 2 here, then taking another call after partner's signoff. Since you play 2 double-negative, it's not like partner is passing 2NT. Probably you would see 2-2(1)-2NT-4(2)-4NT(3)-5(4)-5(5)-5(6)-Pass

(1) Game force
(2) Transfer to hearts
(3) Keycard; extras
(4) One
(5) Queen ask
(6) No queen

Of course, things are more awkward if you play 0314 and less awkward if you play kickback, but whatever.
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a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
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#4 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2009-November-13, 14:24

What do bids other than 2 or 2 show? Does responder have a way to show a positive in and if so, what does that promise? This hand isn't a positive in , but it is important to know what inferences opener can make over the failure to bid a positive in .

Also. after
2 2 (assuming this means we are GF)
2NT
what is the difference between 4 (transfer to ), and 3 (transfer to ) followed by 4 (bearing in mind that in both cases, responder has denied a positive in )?

With all these distinctions available, it ought to be possible for opener to know by the time the bidding reaches 4 that slam isn't very good here.
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