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Bidding problem after interference of 1NT opening

#1 User is offline   dailo 

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Posted 2009-June-10, 11:46

Scoring: MP


1N - (2H) - ??

What should north bid here? Is 3 forcing or not?
6 or 6 seems possible (from north's view). How should the bidding go on?

Thanks.
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#2 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2009-June-10, 11:58

1NT-2-3 (stayman without a heart stopper)-Pa
3NT (I have the heart stopper)-Pa-4???

Anyway, I'm not sure how to continue after 3NT, Pass is an option (the best at MP's in this case) and I'm biased 'cause I see 6 cannot be made (unless the guy who bid 2 has A and QJT or any 4 or more spades). Of course that sequence works if you play Lebensohl, but anyway you should have clear agreements with a partner on what to do on these situations.

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#3 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 00:24

A lot depends on your overall structure.

When you have a bid for "stayman without a stopper" use it.
When you play take out double, use it.
When 3 Diamond is forcing, bid it.

I do not know what is standard, so I had tried 3 followed by 4 opposite an unknown partner.

With my regular partner I play neg. doubles, so the bidding had been
1 NT (2) X (pass)
3 4 (Do you like your hand for slam? If yes tell me your KCs)
4 5 (U have minimum,. ok then just 5)
Kind Regards

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#4 User is offline   Cascade 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 00:34

It depends a lot on your agreement.

Negative Doubles and new suits forcing at the two level are fairly standard. Along with some sort of Lebensohl variant for weak hands.

Some might still play penalty doubles.

If double is takeout you might also need an agreement about whether double and bid is weak or strong.

If you bid 3 there is some problem since it might become awkward to find a spade fit. As partner with spades and a heart stopper will be reluctant to bid spades since over 3 without spades you may not be willing to bid 3NT.

So you might start with a negative double. That is what I would do in my partnership but we have the clear agreement that double and bid is forcing. So we would continue:

1NT (2) Dbl (Pass)
2NT (Pass) 3 ...

2NT would deny spades and 3 would be game forcing.
Wayne Burrows

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#5 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 00:42

3C transfer to Ds for me. In standard methods i would start with a sputnik double.
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#6 User is offline   TheoKole 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 01:36

If you play Leibenshoel (Slow Shows- Fast Denies) you can bid Stayman with a bid of 3 , game forcing and because you arrived at stayman without going through 2 NT relay you deny a stopper (fast denies). If you had a stopper say Ax , you would have gone through 2 NT, then 3 (slow shows a stopper). Some pairs do the opposite (Slow denies - Fast Shows) so the 2 bidding sequences are reversed.

If partner bids 3NT then 4 would obviously be a slam try in diamonds, and then you can cue bid up the line. 4NT by partner would be a strong suggestion to play in this situation.

Cheers, Theo
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#7 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 01:42

Cascade, on Jun 11 2009, 07:34 AM, said:

Negative Doubles and new suits forcing at the two level are fairly standard.

Did you mean to say "forcing at the two level"?
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#8 User is online   helene_t 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 04:38

Hi Dailo, welcome to the forum!


3 is surely forcing in any standard method although I often see people passing it at the club.

If you want to ask for a spade fit first, there are a number of ways to do it. The cuebid of 3 surely asks for a four-card spades, but it is unclear if it shows or denies a heart stopper. The Lebensohl convention is useful here: 2NT forces opener to bid 3, so you have two ways of asking for a 4-card spades:
1NT-(2)-3
and
1NT-(2)-2NT
3-(pass)-3
one of which shows a heart stopper and the other denies, you have to discuss with p which is which.

You can also start with a double, but dbl followed by 3 would probably not be forcing (make sure you have discussed this with p!) and besides, not everyone play this dbl as t/o.
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#9 User is offline   agusaris 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 05:17

You might like to consider this method

Immediate cue bid = Stayman and no stop in opps suit

2NT requires opener to bid 3 clubs then a cue bid = Stayman with half a stop eg Jxx.

Three clubs followed by 3NT = Stayman with full stop.

The ability to show a half stop can be useful if opener has something like Qx.
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#10 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 05:20

Hi,

depends on partnership agreement, but it is a good
agreement to play X over 2H as t/o.
3D is forcing, if you have agreed to play 2NT as
Lebensohl, and even if not, for practical purposes it
should be forcing anyway.


I would go with X, opener may or may not pass this
one out, or he bids 2NT.
After 2NT you will raise to 3NT and play it there.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#11 User is offline   dailo 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 07:21

Thanks for all replies. :o

I think Lebensohl can solve the problem.
But now I wonder if it is profitable to reserve the X for penalty.
We can bid 3 or 2NT then 3 to ask for spades, using X for t/o seems less attractive.

At the table i thought the X is for penalty so i passed and received a 30% board for 2HX-1.

For those who are curious, the 4 hands are

Scoring: MP

6 can be made by squeezing West. :(
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#12 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 07:40

dailo, on Jun 11 2009, 09:21 AM, said:

6 can be made by squeezing West.  :(

Just as I predicted in my first post!

Edit: It can't be made, unless as someone said A is led. With the Q lead or any lead you wind up with one winner less than neccessary.

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


My YouTube Channel
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#13 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 08:06

dailo, on Jun 11 2009, 02:21 PM, said:

6 can be made by squeezing West. :(

No it can't, or not unless he leads A.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#14 User is online   helene_t 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 08:26

oops sorry, stupid post.
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#15 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 08:54

Out of curiosity, I wonder is anyone else has an agreement as to what a Texas Transfer into the opponents' suit means. (1NT-2-4!)

I play that with one partner as a strong splinter with either 4441 or 4450, or possibly 5-3 in the minors. Definitely four in the other major.

A stong "Michaels" type of meaning makes sense also.

If the major was spades, 4 by Responder might also be used to grab the contract, if that makes sense.

But, any thoughts?

That approach might be a bit much on this particular hand, but it was my first thought.
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#16 User is offline   dailo 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 09:36

Right. Thanks for correcting me.
A should be led for 6 or 6NT to be made.
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