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2NT poll

Poll: what should a simple rebid be? (20 member(s) have cast votes)

what should a simple rebid be?

  1. GF (1 votes [5.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 5.00%

  2. NF (14 votes [70.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 70.00%

  3. depends (5 votes [25.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 25.00%

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#1 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2009-April-16, 13:04

What should partner's rebids be after I bid 2NT invitational after some sequence?

Say,

1m-2NT
3m

1-1NT
2-2NT
3

1-1
2-2NT
3

1-1
2-2
2NT-3

of course there are sequences that are obviously GF, like

1-2NT
3

I'm talking about the rest of the sequences, that could conceivably be useful as natural NF (or even signoff). If you think it depends, what does it depend on? What meta-agreement do you have?
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#2 User is offline   JLOL 

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Posted 2009-April-16, 13:07

If you rebid your first minor its clearly NF (1m 2N 3m)

If you rebid your second suit it is debatable how you should play it, I now think NF is right, but forcing has a lot of merit obv.

S H S is forcing.

3D is weird in your last auction, but I could think of bidding that way with KQJxxx x xxxx xx. I think the logic of the auction is that 3D is NF given that 2S and 2N were both NF.
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#3 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-April-16, 13:22

I think that any return to a suit that the bidder has already shown should be a signoff, unless it implies a shape that means you can't have a weak hand. If you're English, in some auctions you can use the fourth suit to deal with game-forcing 5-5s. For example:

1-1; 2-2NT; 3 is a signoff, but
1-1; 2-2NT; 3 is forcing, because you wouldn't bid 2 with a weak 6-4.
1-1; 2-2NT; 3 is fourth-suit forcing, and includes good 5-5s.

1-1NT; 2-2NT; 3 depends on whether opener can have a weak 6-4 for this sequence. If he can, this is non-forcing. With a good 6-4, you might bid a minor-suit fragment to fish out spade support.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#4 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2009-April-17, 03:26

gwnn, on Apr 16 2009, 07:04 PM, said:

1.
1m-2NT
3m

2.
1-1NT
2-2NT
3

3.
1-1
2-2NT
3

4.
1-1
2-2
2NT-3

1. NF. If pard had good clubs, he'd bid 3NT. So he's got typically a broken 6 card suit.

2. Same thing. If pard had good spades, he'd bid 4.

3. NF. Familiar argument by now.

4. See 1,2,3.
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#5 User is online   helene_t 

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Posted 2009-April-17, 04:16

JLOL, on Apr 16 2009, 08:07 PM, said:

S H S is forcing.

Yes. We have had that discussion a couple of times before. The argument is that if opener had a minimum 6-4 he would probably pass 2NT, and if not, he should probably have rebid 2 rather than 2.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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#6 User is offline   petergreat 

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Posted 2009-April-17, 06:46

Rebid shows a desire to play in suit contract, possibly inviting 3NT?
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#7 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2009-April-17, 07:16

#1 NF

#2 NF. although one could agree that this seq. is forcing,
but you have FSF av.

#3 NF, well opener simply describes his shape further,
in this seq. it may make sense to play 3C as forcing,
but for memory sake, I would go with NF as well, you
have FSF av.

#4 NF, opener is tightly limited, responder is limited, if

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#8 User is offline   hatchett 

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Posted 2009-April-17, 10:24

1-1NT
2-2NT
3

A useful adjunct in this sequence to play 3 as artificial asking opener to bid 3. Then a 3 major continuation is GF and 3NT shows a fragment.

Then you can play a direct 3 major rebid over 2NT as NF,
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#9 User is online   helene_t 

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Posted 2009-April-17, 10:46

hatchett, on Apr 17 2009, 05:24 PM, said:

1-1NT
2-2NT
3

A useful adjunct in this sequence to play 3 as artificial asking opener to bid 3. Then a 3 major continuation is GF and 3NT shows a fragment.

Then you can play a direct 3 major rebid over 2NT as NF,

You mean 3 by opener (over responder's 2NT) asks responder to bid 3, don't you? Otherwise I don't quite follow.
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