Playing normalish 2/1 with a good partner, what rebid is right?
#61
Posted 2009-February-16, 17:02
In undiscussed areas, I tend to assume BWS. That said, I have discussed this with only one partner, and we play it as showing extra values. However, we also play that 1N does not suggest a ♥ stopper.
#62
Posted 2009-February-16, 19:36
LH2650, on Feb 16 2009, 06:02 PM, said:
In undiscussed areas, I tend to assume BWS. That said, I have discussed this with only one partner, and we play it as showing extra values. However, we also play that 1N does not suggest a ♥ stopper.
How does BWS define the negative double?
#63
Posted 2009-February-16, 22:11
It is also very useful to play after the 1♣...2♦ reverse that the 4th suit is Leb and wants badly to sign off and even can pass a 2NT rebid from a flattish (for a reverse) opener with the 4th suit likely stopped.
This negX sequence also shows why in S. Am we prefer to open 1♦ when 44 in majors lacking 4♠
#64
Posted 2009-February-17, 00:30
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I have to differ with your analysis. The entire object of opening the 4-card suit is the concept of preparedness, i.e., having a convenient bid to make when partner makes an inconvenient bid and your hand is not suitable for a NT rebid.
This is the reason many fine players will still open 1H with 4H and 5D - I bet under the right situation died-in-the-wool 4-card majorites like Eddie Kantar and Bob Hamman would still open 1H on some hands.
The same holds true in the minors. If you believe like the older players that 1345 is not NT shape, then over 1D-1S you would rebid 2C. The secret to making this work is for responder to never hold 2-2 in the minors.
So the concept of 2D after the negative double as a reverse means that you always open 1C when 45 and always rebid 1N with 13 or 22 major shape. This is the only way 2D can be a guaranteed reverse after the double.
So if you had A, 245, AKJ9, 108742 you would open 1C and then you can't bid 2D after 1H-X because it would be a reverse.
Hmmm. Well, I guess evolution doesn't always improve the species.
#65
Posted 2009-February-17, 01:21
Many 2245 are 1C opening followed by 1Nt. But after the overcall and the neg X 2D as non-reverse is a nice possibility even at the risk of playing 3C instead of 2C.
1C------(1S)--------X--------(P)
2C------(2S) all pass
vs
1C-------(1S)-------X--------(P)
2D-------(2S)------- here responder can easily be 3451
For instance, he doesn't like being used as a human shield when we're being shot at.
I happen to think it's a very noble way to meet one's maker, especially for a guy like him.
Bottom line is we never let that difference of opinion interfere with anything."
#66
Posted 2009-February-17, 01:24
Winstonm, on Feb 17 2009, 01:30 AM, said:
I think we have a different definition of the word "many". Or maybe it's just the definition of the word "fine" when used in conjunction with "many".
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Or 3-3. Or for that matter 2-3 depending on the rest of the hand...
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what the...
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Post that hand and see what people open, even those who 'always' open 1♣ with 4-5 in the minors.
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It's always someone who refused to evolve that says that...
#67
Posted 2009-February-17, 02:10
Winstonm, on Feb 17 2009, 01:30 AM, said:
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I have to differ with your analysis. The entire object of opening the 4-card suit is the concept of preparedness, i.e., having a convenient bid to make when partner makes an inconvenient bid and your hand is not suitable for a NT rebid.
This is the reason many fine players will still open 1H with 4H and 5D - I bet under the right situation died-in-the-wool 4-card majorites like Eddie Kantar and Bob Hamman would still open 1H on some hands.
The same holds true in the minors. If you believe like the older players that 1345 is not NT shape, then over 1D-1S you would rebid 2C. The secret to making this work is for responder to never hold 2-2 in the minors.
So the concept of 2D after the negative double as a reverse means that you always open 1C when 45 and always rebid 1N with 13 or 22 major shape. This is the only way 2D can be a guaranteed reverse after the double.
So if you had A, 245, AKJ9, 108742 you would open 1C and then you can't bid 2D after 1H-X because it would be a reverse.
Hmmm. Well, I guess evolution doesn't always improve the species.
Looks like the advantage to your method is preparedness.
The advantage to my method is knowing respective suit lengths and being able to attract a false preference to 2D so that opening hand can bid again.
I've found two links which discuss the 1D-1L, 2C rebid in terms of a forcing bid.
One is K-S...
http://www.bridgehands.com/Conventions/Kap...d_KS_System.htm
and the other is Cole...
http://www.bridgeguy...tions/Cole.html
Both of these use 1D-1L, 3C as an intermediate hand with 5m/5m and
1D-1L, 2D as possibly only 5 diamonds.
I'm not saying that their methods are better. I'm only using them to illustrate that the sequence 1D-1L, 2C is difficult (especially because opener's range is so wide here) and that if some good players thought that 2C ought to be forcing that we might think that it is at least highly encouraging of another bid....which it can't very well be if opener can have 4D and 5C.
As to the hand you suggested, A xxx AKJ9 T8xxx, I would prefer...
1C-1L, 2C to
1D-1L, 2C
but what I really prefer is...
1C-1L, 1N
1N is much better for several reasons....
1. I dislike rebidding a 5-card suit and especially the one you gave me.
2. I leave more room for partner. He can make a GI and we can get out in 2M
.....(this is aided greatly if 1m-2H shows 5S/4H)
3. Partner still has room to find out my exact pattern.
4. 1N usually scores better than 2m
5. Partner ought to be alert to my having a stiff spade anyway for when I'm
.....1-4-4-4 (or would you open 1D and rebid 2C on this as well?)
True, the downside is that partner can't sign off in 2S with only five now. I'll take some losses with this, but I think I gain more.
Now I'll give you a hand. With A AKJ9 xxx T8xxx what's your open and what's your rebid over 1S? I plan to open 1C and rebid 1N.
#68
Posted 2009-February-17, 09:17
Winstonm, on Feb 13 2009, 01:27 PM, said:
jdonn, on Feb 13 2009, 02:14 AM, said:
Winstonm, on Feb 13 2009, 01:12 AM, said:
Could you explain the basis of that comment please?
Sure,
I don't think the hand is good enough for a reverse. I think partner will say in the post mortem, that hand wasn't good enough for a reverse. I would answer, you're right, it isn't good enough for a reverse.
Bridge is never always a game of perfect, but I feel a 2♦ reverse is not that much of an exaggeration. And if I had to choose between a slightly overbid than an underbid, I would go for the slight overbid which leaves plenty of bidding space to sort things out.
#69
Posted 2009-February-17, 09:31
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Then always doesn't always mean always.
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It's always someone who refused to evolve that says that...
Zactly! LoL. Who said there aren't living dinosaurs?
#70
Posted 2009-February-17, 10:36
Winstonm, on Feb 17 2009, 10:31 AM, said:
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Then always doesn't always mean always.
No, 'always' doesnt mean always.
#71
Posted 2009-February-22, 22:13