[Lobowolf]

1C - 1S - X - P

Does a 2D rebid by opener here promise a full reverse?

[jdonn]

Y
E
S

[Lobowolf]

That's my answer, too, but a surprising number of very good players differed when I had it as a panel problem.

[han]

Depends on your agreement. I believe my partner told me we play this one as NF and 1C-(2S)-Dbl-(p)-3D as forcing. If I remember correctly.

[jdonn]

Maybe it made sense to have it not show extras back in the days that double showed both unbid suits, but I think NF is HORRIBLE the way double is now played. Partner can be 5422 you know, not to mention if you really have extra strength and 2♦ is nf you have to waste a level to show it.

[Lobowolf]

I think the most relevant questions are raised by distinguishing the auction from one in which you open 1C, and partner responds 1H (since that's in essence what he's done). If you DON'T have a reverse, then why didn't you open 1D? There seem to be two main possibilities - you intended to rebid 2C, perhaps with 5 good clubs and 4 bad diamonds, or you intended to rebid 1NT. I don't rebid 1NT with a singleton in the hand, so the only situation that really calls this into question is if I were 2-2-4-5 and opened 1C intending to rebid 1NT; then, maybe the 1S bid stops my 1NT rebid because I don't have a spade card.

That's the only situation, and it's quite a parlay. If I don't have enough to revese, I open 4-5 in the minors hands 1D. Since in the posted hand, the opening bid was 1C, I must have a reverse. If I AM 2-2-4-5 without a spade card, I'll get over my matchpoint-itis and open 1D followed by 2C, or I'll bite the bullet and rebid 1NT without a spade card. Because the other relevant point is...let's not forget there's a reason reverses promise extras... on the posted auction, if partner doesn't like diamonds, he has to go to the three level to get back to my first suit. Why am I doing that to partner if I don't have a reverse?

[rogerclee]

Reverse.

[P_Marlowe]

No.

As it is, the answer is heavily depend on the place
you are living, scanning the answers above, I would
say most have North American background, and a
player with such a background is more likely to answer
the question with yes, if you ask a player with a european
background the most likely answer is No.

The main reason for the difference is the style of neg. X
you are playing.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[ulven]

P_Marlowe, on Aug 9 2008, 12:55 PM, said:

... if you ask a player with a european
background the most likely answer is No.

The main reason for the difference is the style of neg. X
you are playing.

Agree. I don't know anyone over here who plays this as a reverse.

[Walddk]

ulven, on Aug 9 2008, 08:34 PM, said:

P_Marlowe, on Aug 9 2008, 12:55 PM, said:

... if you ask a player with a european
background the most likely answer is No.

The main reason for the difference is the style of neg. X
you are playing.

Agree. I don't know anyone over here who plays this as a reverse.

I know many, not too far away from Ulf, who do, myself included. In my book the negative double only focuses on hearts, not diamonds. Therefore it's a reverse. As if the bidding had gone

1♣ 1♠ 1♥ pass
2♦

Roland

[han]

I checked with Arend and I had it the wrong way around, 1C-(1S)-Dbl-(p)-2D is forcing but 1C-(2S)-Dbl-(p)-3D is not.

[andy_h]

Definitely a reverse, as X means hearts for me, nothing about diamonds.

[peachy]

jdonn, on Aug 8 2008, 04:28 PM, said:

Y
E
S

I tend to agree. What do you bid as opener, with the following, in the given auction (no tens or nines):

xxxx
Ax
QJx
AQxx

[han]

1NT

[MFA]

peachy, on Aug 9 2008, 03:52 PM, said:

jdonn, on Aug 8 2008, 04:28 PM, said:

Y
E
S

I tend to agree. What do you bid as opener, with the following, in the given auction (no tens or nines):

xxxx
Ax
QJx
AQxx

Clear 1NT. This doesn't show a stopper!

[Lobowolf]

1NT here, as well.

[gnasher]

P_Marlowe, on Aug 9 2008, 06:55 PM, said:

if you ask a player with a european background the most likely answer is No.

It's a reverse in my part of Europe. I don't think you can generalise about bidding methods in a continent as heterogeneous as Europe.

[jdonn]

peachy, on Aug 9 2008, 03:52 PM, said:

jdonn, on Aug 8 2008, 04:28 PM, said:

Y
E
S

I tend to agree. What do you bid as opener, with the following, in the given auction (no tens or nines):

xxxx
Ax
QJx
AQxx

1NT definitely does not promise a stopper. What else can one bid on a balanced minimum with no stopper? Personally I bid 1NT even on xx Axx Kxx AQxxx though I'm fully aware 2♥ would be quite popular.

[P_Marlowe]

gnasher, on Aug 11 2008, 02:43 AM, said:

P_Marlowe, on Aug 9 2008, 06:55 PM, said:

if you ask a player with a european background the most likely answer is No.

It's a reverse in my part of Europe. I don't think you can generalise about bidding methods in a continent as heterogeneous as Europe.

.-) Rolands post already proved me wrong, although it
can be argued, that denmark does not belong to europe,
at least they did not agree to ratify some central EU laws,
... if I think about it, the same holds true for Great Britain,
do they really feel they belong to the continent?

With kind regards
Marlowe