[Vilgan]

Gerben42, on May 2 2008, 01:44 AM, said:

If you play 15 - 17 NT, then you should open every hand that qualifies with 1NT. Not 1♣, not 1♦. 1NT.

Why? Because you have no other way to show the hand. You can upgrade very good 17s to 18 but that's basically your only way out.

About opening 4=4=3=2 with 1♣, that is something to be agreed with partner. But even if you do so, only outside of 1NT range!

I think you are also allowed to intentionally underbid a hand by a point. If partner doesn't have a major, is it the end of the world to show 12-14 with a nonfitting 15 instead of opening it 1NT?

This auction can also suck:

1NT p 2NT all pass
down 1

[keylime]

1♦, and for me, clearcut. This is a hand that needs to be TABLED, not hidden. I open this a forcing club if I get the chance too; the scoring table is set up to find 4-4 major suit fits for a reason.

And K, I am now playing a short club opening too these days locally (Ambra based). It's not too bad.

[P_Marlowe]

Vilgan, on May 2 2008, 06:55 AM, said:

Gerben42, on May 2 2008, 01:44 AM, said:

If you play 15 - 17 NT, then you should open every hand that qualifies with 1NT. Not 1♣, not 1♦. 1NT.

Why? Because you have no other way to show the hand. You can upgrade very good 17s to 18 but that's basically your only way out.

About opening 4=4=3=2 with 1♣, that is something to be agreed with partner. But even if you do so, only outside of 1NT range!

I think you are also allowed to intentionally underbid a hand by a point. If partner doesn't have a major, is it the end of the world to show 12-14 with a nonfitting 15 instead of opening it 1NT?

This auction can also suck:

1NT p 2NT all pass
down 1

Downgrading is certainly ok, but the given hand
is certainly not a hand a lot of peoble would
consider suitable for a downgrade.

An auction, which sucks as well is
1D - 1NT (1)
??? (2)

(1) 6-10
(2) what now? 2NT and -X, because
you happen to catch partner with 6HCP?

With kind regards
Marlowe

PS: There was the suggestion, to open 1C with
certain bal. 15-17 hands and 44 in the black suits.
That is fine, ... as long as you dont happen to play
Walsh, not likely if you are a B/I, but at least it
should be noted, this is because of

1C - 1D (1)
1S (2) - ....

(1) Walsh style
(2) unbal. hand

[ArtK78]

If my hand were:

AQxx
xxxx
AKQ
xx

I could see opening 1♦ as opposed to 1NT. It is still the same balanced 15-17 point hand with two suits unstopped and 2 four-card majors (even if there is some overlap in those two statements), but at least I am getting partner off to the right lead if the opponents wind up declaring the hand.

And I can see the point of opening 1♦ on the example hand as the best way to get to a major suit. But I am not going to both misdescribe my hand with my opening bid and bid a suit in which I hold 8xx.

So, 1NT for me.

[han]

Agree that 1D is more attractive on a 4-4-3-2 pattern when we have a 17-count. There I wouldn't feel bad for rebidding 3M or 2NT.

(Josh is going to hate me for saying this)

[jdonn]

han, on May 2 2008, 10:05 AM, said:

Agree that 1D is more attractive on a 4-4-3-2 pattern when we have a 17-count. There I wouldn't feel bad for rebidding 3M or 2NT.

(Josh is going to hate me for saying this)

Not at all. But 1♦ on this is AWFUL when the diamonds are xxx. So if partner bids a major you overbid, if he bids 1NT you underbid, and if he raises diamonds preemptively you just kill yourself? All so that you could never show the 15-17 balanced that you have? What if he responds 2♣, now you either show an unbalanced hand or 12-14 balanced? People shouldn't go looking for reasons to misdescribe their hand.

[TimG]

In the old days, didn't they open 1♠ and rebid 2♥?