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Use for this sequence? 1D-1M-2N (precision)

#1 User is offline   ccw 

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Posted 2008-April-21, 12:16

In precision with the standard nebulous 1D, what are useful meanings to assign to opener's jump rebid of 2N after responders 1M?

For that matter, does 1D-1N-2N have any meaning?

Thanks

Collins
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#2 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2008-April-21, 12:20

- Solid diamonds
- 6 or 7 diamonds and 3 card support
- mini splinter in higher ranking suit (just thought of that one :P)
- void splinter (played this for years - never came up)

Whatever you choose is fine.

I don't know what 1D - 1N - 2N is. I've never bothered to give it a meaning.
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#3 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2008-April-21, 12:32

ccw, on Apr 21 2008, 07:16 PM, said:

In precision with the standard nebulous 1D, what are useful meanings to assign to opener's jump rebid of 2N after responders 1M?

For that matter, does 1D-1N-2N have any meaning?

Thanks

Collins

1 - 1M
2NT
Is usually used to show some hands like Phil explained.

1 - 1NT
2NT
This one can be used to show both minors, and is rather preemptive. It takes away both 2M bids from opps, who still might want to balance. 5-3 is enough to have a fit...
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#4 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2008-April-21, 14:05

You can multiplex options, I have always done it this way which is relatively simple and seems to work well.

1 1
2 = 5-6 max, or mini splinter for hearts. 2NT to find out. Can also include GF splinters (then a direct splinter would show a void).
2NT = 3 rebid with 0-2 hearts.
3 = 3 rebid with 3 hearts.

1 1
2NT = 3 rebid with 0-2 spades, or mini splinter for spades. 3 to find out. Can also include GF splinters (then a direct splinter would show a void).
3 = 3 rebid with 3 spades.

I would use 1 1NT 2NT (and same if a major is opened) as a rebid of 3 of the suit that is good for notrump.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#5 User is offline   jtfanclub 

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Posted 2008-April-21, 14:13

We play it as max, long suit, singleton (or void) in partner's suit. We haven't discussed it, but we should have 1-1M-3 as showing tolerence for partner's suit.

The logic is that unless we have a ridiculous number of diamonds, if we have shortness in partner's suit and lack 4 cards in the other major, we must have club tolerence. Therefore, we can't afford to bypass 3 with shortness in partner's suit.

Edit: Dammit, jdonn beat me to it.

1-1NT-2NT is going to depend too much on the NT range.
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#6 User is offline   ccw 

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Posted 2008-April-21, 14:19

jtfanclub, on Apr 21 2008, 03:13 PM, said:


1-1NT-2NT is going to depend too much on the NT range.

We play 10-12 NT

and... 2NT is shows 5-5 or better in the minors (less than opening strength NV)
minimal opener Vul. So those hands would not need to be show here.
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#7 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2008-April-21, 16:21

You can use 1 1M 2NT to show good 6+ maximum hand and <3 card M (with 1 1M 3 showing good 6+ maximum hand and 3 card M).

I don't know about 1 1NT 2NT. Maybe strong hand with 6 and 4.
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#8 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2008-April-21, 16:49

1-P-1NT-P-2NT?

An idea:

1-P-1NT-P-?

3 = both minors, values
3 = preemptive, nautral
2NT = EITHER (1) both minors and preemptive OR (2) diamonds and values, with which you will convert 3 to 3, or bid again if partner prefers diamonds.
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#9 User is offline   Syl20 

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Posted 2008-April-22, 02:04

In my system, where 1 must be unbalanced:

1-1M-2NT is Max unbalanced with 5+ and 3 card supports.

1-1NT-2NT is Max unbalanced with >>=4
Sylvain
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