I agree with double, and I could go either way on 4
♠ so I won't fault it. However, I can't fathom passing over that with the north hand in a million years. It's true he can see the dangers of playing in spades if he gets tapped at trick 1, but I would bid 5NT over 4
♠ as pick a slam (NOT grand slam force, for me anyway.) I'm actually not sure south should pick diamonds over that, and it's hard for me to say without being biased by seeing the hands, but since north is forcing to slam on a hand with probably just three spades, I (hopefully un-biased-ly) do think south should bid 6
♦ over that.
Really, how could north pass over the 4
♠ bid? South has the most minimal hand possible, quite likely even subminimum, and slam is good in one suit and a random 9 away from being good in another suit. Add the ace of spades to south and it's not even a maximum, and you can almost claim a grand at trick 1. Heck if south has Q9xxxx of spades and out slam makes on a good day! Sorry Mike and others, I have to disagree as strongly as possible on this one. I'm probably the biggest proponent on the forums of not hanging partner after a preempt, so the fact I hate passing so much on this hand should say something.
Also I disagree with both Mikes on cuebid then 5
♣. Presuming the cuebid originally is spades and a minor, then this just shows a very strong hand with spades and clubs. You can't undo the meaning of a bid by making a totally consistent later bid. Agreed though that showing minors on this hand is misguided.
Edit: Sorry I see now that does agree with what MikeH said (the part about cuebid then 5
♣), my bad. I thought you said it shows just clubs. I couldn't believe that's what I was reading, apparently because I wasn't really reading it
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
(3♥)-DBL-(4♥}-4♠
(pas)-?