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what's the "plus" in +170?

#1 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2007-September-20, 10:53

1-(1NT)-X-(2*)
p-(2)-all pass

Scoring: IMP


So it wasn't exactly +170, it was +200 for 2-2. What should have went differently?

(West made a somewhat improvised 1NT on AKQ-sixth and some outside King or so)
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#2 User is offline   jtfanclub 

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Posted 2007-September-20, 11:10

gwnn, on Sep 20 2007, 11:53 AM, said:

1-(1NT)-X-(2*)
p-(2)-all pass

I give up. What would an X of the 2 transfer show, if not this hand?
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#3 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2007-September-20, 11:10

You should discuss whether the pass of 2S was forcing or not. I vote for forcing.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#4 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2007-September-21, 01:06

I agree with Han that you should play pass as forcing. This may not always give the best results, but more often then not.

This hand is really ugly. I have no double of 2 Heart with JT9x, no clear bid after 2 Spade with ten HCPs and a weak 5 card suit and no bid I like after 2 Spade pass pass.

I think I had bid:

1♣-(1NT)-X-(2♥*)
p-(2♠)-pass (pass)
2 NT (pass) pass (pass)

For a much worse result then + 200 :) after they took their 6 diamond tricks....

But I had not been able to pass this out, nor had I doubled with a stiff nor had I repeated my "solid" clubs.
I see simply no convincing way to reach 4 Heart.
Kind Regards

Roland


Sanity Check: Failure (Fluffy)
More system is not the answer...
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#5 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2007-September-21, 02:25

I'm with Han as well
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