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pass again or what

#1 User is offline   jocdelevat 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 00:36


Dealer: East
Vul: None
Scoring: IMP
65
QT53
AKT6
AK8


West North East South

 -      -     2    Pass
2 Pass   Pass   ?
 

It's not what you are, it's how you say it!

best regards
jocdelevat
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#2 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 01:19

What was 2H? Was 2S forcing? Why did you pass originally? I would have bid 2NT over a weak 2 opening. Passing hands like this in the hope that partner can re open is not a good tactic.
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#3 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 01:44

Yeah, this is only a problem because we didn't make our normal bid (2NT) the first time. Partner could just have some 10 or 11 where he will have to pass out 2 and 3NT is easy. As it is, this is an impossible problem because no one should be in this position.
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#4 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 02:18

Hi,

I would say, you should have bid 2NT over 2H,
which would have told the whole story.

If you double now, this double is certainly for
takeout, implying heart length, but partne wont
play you for the strength you hold, besides he may
bid 3C, and you may very well go down in your 4-3
fit when 3NT makes, or you may get to 3NT (by overbidding
to catch up) and they may double you.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#5 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 03:04

The intial pass is fine with me. Now double. If partner passes my double it rates to be fine. If he bids 3 or if he scrambles with 2NT it's surely fine. And if he bids 3 he probably has at least five of them.

If opps seem to have a misunderstanding about the forcing character of 2, it's probably ok to pass again since p rates to be broke. What you cannot do now is to bid 2NT: that would shows 5-5 minors.
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#6 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 04:07

I agree that 2NT the first time around is completely normal.

Now I'd double.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

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#7 User is offline   skjaeran 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 05:24

2NT the 1st time is a stand-out IMO. Having failed to make the normal bid, I've got to double now. It's obviously t/o. Partner will expect me to either have a somewhat weaker hand with 44 in the minors (with longer suits I'd bid an unusual 2NT now) or longer and stronger 's (trap passing).

We MIGHT be better off now than after making a 2NT overcall last time, but that's just lucky.
Kind regards,
Harald
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#8 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 06:14

A 2NT overcall the previous round looks normal.

Having not done that, we can double 2S now, which partner will think is more likely a singleton spade.
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#9 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 06:23

2NT the first time.

I would not double the second time with 4-3 in the minors. 4-4 is more like it.
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#10 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 08:31

Gonna dbl. Seems canonical.
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#11 User is offline   neilkaz 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 14:29

OK so the opps aren't playing the 2 is forcing.

Anyhow..why not 2NT on the first round ? Trap passing and hoping PD can reopen usually isn't the way to get the best score, especially when the opps are White. I wouldn't fear the lack of a stopper here when I overcall 2NT.

Now, paradoxically you may have been helped by the opp 2 bid and you can double and this should show a hand short in or you would have doubled the first time.

If PD passes this double he likely has a few and you may hurt the opps. Sometimes the opps may panic and run back to 3 which you should crush doubled.

If PD responds in a minor suit, you may have some guesswork (I think I'd just pass rather than trying for game unless PD jumped) Also I view AKx as adequate support here.

Clearly 2NT on my first bid and clearly doubling now .. neilkaz ..
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