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ACBL GCC - 3NT As "To Play"

#121 User is online   awm 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 11:49

inquiry, on Feb 27 2007, 12:32 PM, said:

On line, he can just provide a hyperlink to the post with the 22 hands... :unsure:

But I will disagree with Todd. 3NT is "to play", thus it has to be natural. I see no qualms with that. Imagine an auction that goes...

Pass-Pass-4...

If you as the 4 what that shows (or his parnter), the best answer, no doubt is to play. He might have Jxxxxxxx xx xx x or as I saw in the cayne match last night, something like AKQTxxxx xx AQT --

I don't know, "to play, can be weak or very strongish" is any better.

But suppose the third seat 4 can also be x xxx x KQJTxxxx. Partner is supposed to pass in any case, but if the auction goes Pass-Pass-4-X-Pass-Pass-5, partner will know to pass that as well (basically partner will never bid in this auction). Suppose partner's seen the third-seat NV 4 bid with short spades and a long minor on several occasions in the past. Shouldn't this possibility be disclosed to opponents? And mightn't it be an illegal agreement in many SOs?

I think the very weakest of his hands, Glen is really using 3NT as a substitute for a minor-suit preempt, hoping to create some confusion and perhaps play 3NT undoubled instead of 4m doubled, or talk opponents out of a major suit game. Partner knows this hand is a possibility (especially NV) and doesn't push hard for slam in these situations (or double the opponents for penalty on hands that might double opposite a known strong hand from partner). While it's possible to argue that "3NT shows a strong hand and bidding it with 11 hcp and a ratty 7-card minor is a psych" I don't think the evidence supports this.
Adam W. Meyerson
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
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#122 User is online   hrothgar 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 11:50

inquiry, on Feb 27 2007, 08:32 PM, said:

On line, he can just provide a hyperlink to the post with the 22 hands... :unsure:

But I will disagree with Todd.  3NT is "to play", thus it has to be natural. I see no qualms with that. Imagine an auction that goes...

Pass-Pass-4...

If you as the 4 what that shows (or his parnter), the best answer, no doubt is to play. He might have Jxxxxxxx xx xx x  or as I saw in the cayne match last night, something like AKQTxxxx xx AQT -- 

I don't know, "to play, can be weak or very strongish" is any better.

I think that its useful to review the definition of conventional. The North American version of the Laws defines conventional as the following:

1. A call that, by partnership agreement, conveys a meaning other than willingness to play in the denomination named (or in the last denomination named), or high-card strength or length (three cards or more) there. However, an agreement as to overall strength does not make a call a convention.

2. Defender's play that serves to convey a meaning by agreement rather than inference.

(I only use the North American version of the Laws because this occred in an ACBL event)

Please reference my post from earlier today where I wrote:

"It seems clear that 3NT carries other meanings than "I think I have a good chance of winning 9 tricks in notrump". Indeed, the extremely low frequency of this bid suggests that these additional qualifications are much more significant that the alleged definition."

I stand by my earlier assessment: 3NT appears to carry some additional meaning other than willingness to play.
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#123 User is offline   glen 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 11:59

hrothgar, on Feb 27 2007, 12:50 PM, said:

Please reference my post from earlier today where I wrote: 

"It seems clear that 3NT carries other meanings than "I think I have a good chance of winning 9 tricks in notrump". Indeed, the extremely low frequency of this bid suggests that these additional qualifications are much more significant that the alleged definition."

I stand by my earlier assessment:  3NT appears to carry some additional meaning other than willingness to play.

I think your assessment continues to be flawed.

3NT does not show "I have a good chance of winning 9 tricks in notrump" based on the hand alone. 3NT shows "I have a good chance of making 3NT" with this hand and if partner shows up with what could be expected, give or take some.

This is the same thing that it would mean if it goes 3(by the opponents)-3NT(by you) - first you don't alert 3NT and explain what it means, and if somebody clicked on it, you might say "natural" or "to play" (or perhaps you believe you would launch into a detailed profile of your last 100 hands to bid 3NT in this spot - good luck with that). When you bid 3NT you hope you have a good chance at making 9 tricks with normal expected help from your partner.

So my 3NT shows a strong desire to play 3NT, and just 3NT, and I don't believe you have substantiated your case at all that it carries additional meaning that responder would be aware of .
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#124 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 12:04

hrothgar, on Feb 27 2007, 12:50 PM, said:

inquiry, on Feb 27 2007, 08:32 PM, said:

On line, he can just provide a hyperlink to the post with the 22 hands... :unsure:

But I will disagree with Todd.  3NT is "to play", thus it has to be natural. I see no qualms with that. Imagine an auction that goes...

Pass-Pass-4...

If you as the 4 what that shows (or his parnter), the best answer, no doubt is to play. He might have Jxxxxxxx xx xx x  or as I saw in the cayne match last night, something like AKQTxxxx xx AQT -- 

I don't know, "to play, can be weak or very strongish" is any better.

I think that its useful to review the definition of conventional. The North American version of the Laws defines conventional as the following:

1. A call that, by partnership agreement, conveys a meaning other than willingness to play in the denomination named (or in the last denomination named), or high-card strength or length (three cards or more) there. However, an agreement as to overall strength does not make a call a convention.

2. Defender's play that serves to convey a meaning by agreement rather than inference.

(I only use the North American version of the Laws because this occred in an ACBL event)

Please reference my post from earlier today where I wrote:

"It seems clear that 3NT carries other meanings than "I think I have a good chance of winning 9 tricks in notrump". Indeed, the extremely low frequency of this bid suggests that these additional qualifications are much more significant that the alleged definition."

I stand by my earlier assessment: 3NT appears to carry some additional meaning other than willingness to play.

I am not so so sure this is correct....

In the 22 hands I found prior to Jan 2007, parnter bid over 3NT twice. Once to raise to 4NT (6C cold, played 4NT) once to bid a seven card spade suit to KJT9 when 3NT was doubled. The pulling with that hand, might be interesting, as it had additional values, but we will skip that for now. IT seems to me that 3NT is meant to play and partner is taking it that way. That has to be natural.

I don't beleive in the concept that a bid is both natural and conventional. A natural bid is defined as "a call indicating a desire to play in the named strain without offering information relevant to a specific different strain." This 3NT bid is not suggesting another strain, and is offering to play 3NT (and indeed, partner left it in 20 out of 22 times). That simply has to be natural.

The fact that it has several different hand types for this natural bid seems to bother you, but in Glen's judgement based upon experience, partnership system, and other factors, is that on the hands he bid 3NT that is the best bid. Maybe when I am to his left he bids 3NT knowing I always make the wrong leads, who knows. But it has to be both natural, and if adequately explained, legall.

Do I think this is winning bridge? Hell no. I think he is making a mistake doing this. But that is not the issue. The issue is it legal. I say yes.
--Ben--

#125 User is online   hrothgar 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 12:13

inquiry, on Feb 27 2007, 09:04 PM, said:

I don't believe in the concept that a bid is both natural and conventional. A natural bid is defined as "a call indicating a desire to play in the named strain without offering information relevant to a specific different strain."

You're welcome to believe whatever you want, however, on this one the regulatory authorities have clearly stated that the laws hold otherwise.

Natural and Conventional are not mutually exclusive terms.

This is well accepted...
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#126 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 12:54

Well, I am growing exhausted on this thread. I have reached my conclusion, others have reached theirs... but let me add some final comments.. using two examples...


2C-P-2D-P
3NT

1D-P-1H-P
3NT

(2H)-3NT

(3H)-3NT

If you asked about each of these auctions, and got an explaination "to play, a variety of hand types" would you consider them "conventional". On each, the 3NT bidder is bidding a contract he would be willing to play.

I think it would be a sad day that when a player makes a bid in a strain and at a level that conveys the information that "this is the contract that I want to play" that such a bid would be judged to be illegal. Oh there could be some exceptions if the bid was a frequent psyche, but I am arguing this is not the case here. Glen is hoping (expecting) to play 3NT for each of these bids. I can't imagine any organization can regulate against such a bid that means exactly what it says, and heaven forbid we outlaw the ability to bid to the contract we want to play naturally.
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#127 User is online   hrothgar 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 12:59

inquiry, on Feb 27 2007, 09:54 PM, said:

I think it would be a sad day that when a player makes a bid in a strain and at a level that conveys the information that "this is the contract that I want to play" that such a bid would be judged to be illegal. Oh there could be some exceptions if the bid was a frequent psyche, but I am arguing this is not the case here. Glen is hoping (expecting) to play 3NT for each of these bids. I can't imagine any organization can regulate against such a bid that means exactly what it says, and heaven forbid we outlaw the ability to bid to the contract we want to play naturally.

Try trotting out a Frelling 2 or an Ekrens 2 opening in an ACBL tournament and let me know what happens...
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Posted 2007-February-27, 13:07

hrothgar, on Feb 27 2007, 01:59 PM, said:

inquiry, on Feb 27 2007, 09:54 PM, said:

I think it would be a sad day that when a player makes a bid in a strain and at a level that conveys the information that "this is the contract that I want to play" that such a bid would be judged to be illegal. Oh there could be some exceptions if the bid was a frequent psyche, but I am arguing this is not the case here. Glen is hoping (expecting) to play 3NT for each of these bids. I can't imagine any organization can regulate against such a bid that means exactly what it says, and heaven forbid we outlaw the ability to bid to the contract we want to play naturally.

Try trotting out a Frelling 2 or an Ekrens 2 opening in an ACBL tournament and let me know what happens...

Both bids suggest TWO suits, yes? The definition of natural I gave (taken from link from the ACBL.org page) was...

"a call indicating a desire to play in the named strain without offering information relevant to a specific different strain."

Ekren 2D is not even close to natural as it shows both majors and not a desire to play in diamonds at all. You are full of what you said glen was if you are seriously putting this forward as a natural opening by the definition used.

And both Frelling and Erken are based upon "assumed fit". Frelling at least promises diamonds (so that part appears natural), but it also promises a side 4 card major (allowing responder to jump even in a four card major if he holds both). Thus failing the definition of a natural bid (since it offers inforamation relevant to a specific different stain).

If these two bids are your example of how a bid can be both natural and conventional you mentioned on the previous page, then that entire argument falls flattly on its face.
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#129 User is online   hrothgar 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 13:40

inquiry, on Feb 27 2007, 10:07 PM, said:

 

>Ekren 2D is not even close to natural as it shows both majors and
>not a desire to play in diamonds at all. You are full of what you said
>glen was if you are seriously putting this forward as a natural opening
>by the definition used.

If you review the original quote, I made reference to an Ekren type 2 opening.

>If these two bids are your example of how a bid can be both natural and
>conventional you mentioned on the previous page, then that entire argument
>falls flatly on its face.

You might not like it, but these two bids are both natural and conventional. A Muiderberg 2 is another classic example.

You don't need to talk my word on this. Feel free to go to the Bridge laws mailing list or David Stevenson's Bridge Talk forums and ask the question yourself.

This was all settled a long time ago
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#130 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 14:37

I missed that you said erken 2, as I think of these as both 2 bids. But both fail the legal definition of a natural bid, since both suggest a different strain in addition to the one bid (see the definition of a "natural call").

This is not to suggest that a bid can not be both natural and conventional. The definition of a convention is:

Definition of Convention
A call that, by partnership agreement, conveys a meaning other than willingness to play in the denomination named (or in the last denomination named), or highcard strength or length (three cards or more) there. However, an agreement as to overall strength does not make a call a convention.

So, while for example, a 1 bid that is both natural and 100% forcing (then fantunes system) would be conventional. It is conventional despite being natural because it DOES NOT suggest playing 1 as a final contract. In fact, you can not.

But in the examples here, 3NT is not suggesting another strain and is to play that precise contract. It is 100% natural despite having a singletons or voids since it is suggesting 3NT as a final contract.

Since Glen means to play 3NT. He is not suggesting another strain and his partner is not acting upon it. Now, he has some unusual agreement perhaps about the hand that can be held, and he meets his requirement to provide an alert to these agreements. But, since the bid fits the definition of a natural bid, I see no way the ACBL or any other sponsoring organization can regulate it under the laws of bridge. They can only regulate conventions, and this one is not. The AGREEMENT is GLen wants to declarer 3NT, regardless of the hand he holds. That agreeement is simple and legal. It is a matter of judgement and experience. I disagree with him usign this bid on the grounds that it is not the best bridge strategy (IMHO), but it surely and simply has to be legal.
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#131 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 14:44

hotShot, on Feb 27 2007, 12:38 PM, said:

mike777, on Feb 27 2007, 07:26 PM, said:

hotShot, on Feb 27 2007, 12:24 PM, said:

After seeing the sample hands, i would say:

Quote

3NT shows a hand with 3-6(7 non.vul) loser usually (but not necessarily) unbalanced or semibalanced. If the hand contains long suits, it might have less HCP.

great and what does a "loser" mean. There are several definitions.
Please give me 15 minutes to pull out my dictionary before I bid.
1) Is this bid GCC or midchart legal?
2) Are the opp playing the same system if over a year one bids it 21 times and the other never?
3) Is there a full and complete explanation?
4) Are other laws in play?

I think you are familiar with LTC?

1) I don't care, but that would be full disclosure.

2) As long as partners 3NT bid does not have a different meaning, i think it's legal.

3) Yes there is, i posted one.

4) No, LAWS are not involved just *regulations* from a SO.

Yes, I know LTC that is one of many definitions of how to count losers, there are others, lol.
Also despite what is posted on the forums LTC applies with a known fit.
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#132 User is online   hrothgar 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 14:54

inquiry, on Feb 27 2007, 11:37 PM, said:

I missed that  you said erken 2, as I think of these as both 2 bids. But both fail the legal definition of a natural bid, since both suggest a different strain in addition to the one bid (see the definition of a "natural call").

The definition of "natural" that you provide sidesteps the Muiderberg 2 example. Even so, this definition is not relevent to the discussion at hand.

The definition that you offer originated on The Bridge World's web site. You can find the original citation at http://www.bridgeworld.com/default.asp?d=b...y&f=glossn.html

The definition that the Bridge World offers has no legal standing. (Its a great magazine, but they haven't had much to do with the Laws since Kaplan passed away)

The word "natural" is never definied in the Laws.

As far as I know, the ACBL has never published an official definition for the term. (They have published "requirements" that a natural bid must show 3+ cards in a minor and 4+ cards in a major. Furthermore, I'm not disputing that the ACBL's web site might link to the Bridge World definition, however the ACBL's GCC says something very different

1. An opening suit bid or response is considered natural if in a minor it shows
three or more cards in that suit and in a major it shows four or more cards
in that suit. A notrump opening or overcall is natural if not unbalanced
(generally, no singleton or void and only one or two doubletons).

2. An overcall in a suit is considered natural if, by agreement, it shows four
or more cards in the denomination named.

Note that this is significantly different than the definition that you provided and corresponding with my interpetation.)

In contrast, the EBU Orange Book does explictly define the word natural. The definition offered is much the same as the one that you cite:

Natural Suit bid: A bid showing length in the suit and saying nothing about any other suit. Length is at least four cards unless explicitly stated otherwise. In many situations, especially on later rounds, a natural suit bid may show at least three cards in that suit.
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#133 User is offline   glen 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 17:10

There seems to be three points of confusion that have crept into this discussion.

First there is the natural versus conventional point. Natural actually does not matter here, just whether a bid is conventional or not. A 3NT bid to play, and with no additional meanings, is not conventional.

Second there is this idea of “willingness to play” 3NT being defined as having “good chance for 9 tricks”. Let’s look at a 4 opening in third seat white vs. red:

Scoring: IMP

This hand has very slim chances of making 10 tricks opposite a passed hand partner. However the 4 opening bid is not conventional as it is a “willingness to play” 4, and does not have additional meanings.

So “willingness to play” does not necessarily mean expecting to make the contract.

Third, running out of a contract does not imply there was no “willingness to play” the contract. For example one might open 1 on:

Scoring: IMP

If it now goes 1-Double-Pass-Pass-?, opener might decide to bid 1 here, which does not imply there was no initial “willingness to play” 1, just that there is no “willingness to play” 1 after the subsequent bidding has indicated the contract will likely be a disaster.

So to sum up these points:
- A bid is not conventional if it is a willingness to play there without additional meanings;
- The chance of success in the contract will not determine “willingness to play”;
- Subsequent run outs do not, by themselves, imply there was no “willingness to play”.

Now I realize that for some accepting these points will not come easy, even though they can be demonstrated with countless examples from everyday bridge. I just ask that if you do reply, please provide reasoning with your opinions and blanket statements, and that you avoid swearing if possible. Also I do understand that many would prefer that the Laws state a bid is not conventional if there is a “willingness to play” and it is natural, with some definition of natural.

As to hrothgar, who believes “it seems clear that 3NT carries other meanings”, now that you have been “illuminated” by the hands, I challenge you to suggest one or more “other meanings” that may be carried in 3NT, besides it being “to play”. If an “other meaning” you select is of the “might have” variety, please indicate when a “might have” makes a bid conventional, while a might have an awful hand does not make the 4 bid given above conventional.
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#134 User is online   hrothgar 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 18:00

officeglen, on Feb 28 2007, 02:10 AM, said:

As to hrothgar, who believes “it seems clear that 3NT carries other meanings”, now that you have been “illuminated” by the hands, I challenge you to suggest one or more “other meanings” that may be carried in 3NT, besides it being “to play”. If an “other meaning” you select is of the “might have” variety, please indicate when a “might have” makes a bid conventional, while a might have an awful hand does not make the 4 bid given above conventional.

There is a big difference between the 3NT opening that you are using and the 4 that you posit.

I have no objection if you want to open 4H on a hand like

S 7
H JT65432
D T762
C 2

I will even agree that this is a natural bid provided that you are bidding in a deterministic matter. However, once you start deliberately randomizing your bids, you are introducing a very significant change to your methods.

I would go so far as to argue that adopting a mixed bidding strategy is sufficient to change a bid from natural to conventional.

Don't get me wrong: I am very much in favor of adopting and using mixed strategies during the bidding game. I've posted about them on numerous occasions. I use them myself. But I don't pretend that this is a "natural" type of method.
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#135 User is offline   DrTodd13 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 18:13

Sure, people know that 4 can be weak and you aren't expecting to make it but if you bid 3N and say "to play," I can guarantee you that people are not going to be expecting you bidding 3N on hands where you know there is no hope of making it.

I agree that any non-determinism makes something natural and unconventional into something natural and conventional. If the rules/definitions don't reflect this then the rules need to be changed.
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#136 User is offline   LH2650 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 18:50

officeglen, on Feb 27 2007, 06:10 PM, said:

First there is the natural versus conventional point.  Natural actually does not matter here, just whether a bid is conventional or not.  A 3NT bid to play, and with no additional meanings, is not conventional. 

No, this is a convention and is not GCC legal.

In the GCC, under "Definitions", may be found:

"A notrump opening or overcall is natural if not unbalanced
(generally, no singleton or void and only one or two doubletons)."

The examples shown make it clear that this definition is not being met.

Anyone who thinks that the ACBL doesn't regulate to this definition should research opening 1N with a singleton.
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Posted 2007-February-27, 19:28

LH2650, on Feb 27 2007, 07:50 PM, said:

officeglen, on Feb 27 2007, 06:10 PM, said:

First there is the natural versus conventional point.  Natural actually does not matter here, just whether a bid is conventional or not.  A 3NT bid to play, and with no additional meanings, is not conventional. 

No, this is a convention and is not GCC legal.

In the GCC, under "Definitions", may be found:

"A notrump opening or overcall is natural if not unbalanced
(generally, no singleton or void and only one or two doubletons)."

The examples shown make it clear that this definition is not being met.

Anyone who thinks that the ACBL doesn't regulate to this definition should research opening 1N with a singleton.

You may think the ACBL language, which has to do with alerts actually (see not only the GCC which you quote, but also their document on alerts, where this sentence is lifted verbatim) forbids this 3NT opening bid or makes it illegal. You would be wrong.

The international rules of bridge 1) defines a conventional bid, and 2) expressely deals with what a sponsoring organization (ike the ACBL) can and can not restrict. First, THE definition of a conventional bid as per the LAWS of BRIDGE...

This is copied word-for-word from Chapter I, "Definitions"

Quote

Convention 
1. A call that, by partnership agreement, conveys a meaning other than willingness to play in the denomination named (or in the last denomination named), or high-card strength or length (three cards or more) there. However, an agreement as to overall strength does not make a call a convention.
2. Defender's play that serves to convey a meaning by agreement rather than inference.

Obvious the second part deals with conventional signals during play.. Please explain where Glen's use of 3NT opening bid fits anywhere in the first definition. You will not be able too.

Then there is LAW 40, which is found in Chapter V "The Auction""

Section E of law 40 expressedly says what sponsoring organizations CAN do related to regulating auctions and in particular pay close attention to A (psyches can not be banned), B (bids that might be based upon special special partnership agreements must be disclosed in the ways described by the sponsoring organization -- aka alerts). And most importantly, see section "D" which expressedly states what can be regulated (conventional bids and plays ... defined in the defintion section, and opening bids with a "king" less than "average strength."). In fact no bridge organization, ACBL, EBU, etc have the legal right to restrict the opening of 3NT on these hands... only that (in accordance with 40B their "special partnership understanding" is appropriately disclosed (in acbl by alerting).

Quote

E. Convention Card
A. Right to Choose Call or Play
A player may make any call or play (including an intentionally misleading call - such as a psychic bid - or a call or play that departs from commonly accepted, or previously announced, use of a convention), without prior announcement, provided that such call or play is not based on a partnership understanding.

B. Concealed Partnership Understandings Prohibited
A player may not make a call or play based on a special partnership understanding unless an opposing pair may reasonably be expected to understand its meaning, or unless his side discloses the use of such call or play in accordance with the regulations of the sponsoring organisation.

C. Director's Option
If the Director decides that a side has been damaged through its opponents' failure to explain the full meaning of a call or play, he may award an adjusted score.

D. Regulation of Conventions
The sponsoring organisation may regulate the use of bidding or play conventions. Zonal organisations may, in addition, regulate partnership understandings (even if not conventional) that permit the partnership's initial actions at the one level to be made with a hand of a king or more below average strength. Zonal organisations may delegate this responsibility.

E. Convention Card
1. Right to Prescribe
The sponsoring organisation may prescribe a convention card on which partners are to list their conventions and other agreements and may establish regulations for its use, including a requirement that both members of a partnership employ the same system (such a regulation must not restrict style and judgement, only method).
2. Referring to Opponents' Convention Card
During the auction and play, any player except dummy may refer to his opponents' convention card at his own turn to call or play, but not to his own

--Ben--

#138 User is online   hrothgar 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 19:31

LH2650, on Feb 28 2007, 03:50 AM, said:

officeglen, on Feb 27 2007, 06:10 PM, said:

First there is the natural versus conventional point.  Natural actually does not matter here, just whether a bid is conventional or not.  A 3NT bid to play, and with no additional meanings, is not conventional. 

No, this is a convention and is not GCC legal.

In the GCC, under "Definitions", may be found:

"A notrump opening or overcall is natural if not unbalanced
(generally, no singleton or void and only one or two doubletons)."

The examples shown make it clear that this definition is not being met.

Anyone who thinks that the ACBL doesn't regulate to this definition should research opening 1N with a singleton.

This is a very good point:

Ben posted 22 hands where Glen opened 3NT. 11 of these hands contain singletons, eight of which are singleton honors (A, K, or Q). One of the remaining 3 hands has a stiff Jack.

The typical hand type for this opening looks to be a

12 - 18 HCP, 6-7 card minor with a stiff honor...

In contrast, seven of the remaining hands have (approximately) the same HCP strength with a 6322 or 7222 pattern.

A very small number of hands fall into the strong balanced/semi balanced category
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#139 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 20:18

officeglen, on Feb 27 2007, 02:54 AM, said:

jdonn, on Feb 27 2007, 02:53 AM, said:

You could just as easily play 4 as gerber and no other systems over that bid as well. It's not as though you are finding your major suit fits after the 3NT opening currently either.

The 25-26 balanced opens 2 and there are better chances to find a fit this way - soon to be more as we move to a Kokish (aka birthright) type approach.

You are missing the point. I have pointed out that I some of the reasons I think you may be playing a bid with the definition you have given this one are
- An attempt to avoid rules that might bar you from playing this bid if it were a 'convention'.
- An attempt to avoid rules that prohibit partners from playing a different system.
Since I knew you would disagree with those assertions I wanted to give you a chance to defend yourself and say why you do play this 3NT bid. 25-26 balanced was just intended as a simple alternative example, but whatever alternative chosen is not relevent. Your answer to that suggestion was 'if we played that method we would have to play conventions we don't want to play', which was ridiculous.

Quote

jdonn, on Feb 27 2007, 02:53 AM, said:

It was supported by your own post, which I was obviously paraphrasing. Or need I remind you "If you can't understand a non-conventional, to play, game bid, what new stuff are you going to try to relate to in the future, besides what you feel comfortable with?" That sounds to me like disbelief that anyone could have the gall to want to know what hands make a certain bid when it seems so obvious to you that knowing the contract the bidder likes most (before having any information outside his own hand) is sufficient.

While it might sound to you "like disbelief that anyone could have the gall to want to know", it was intended to to focus on the negativity that you and a few others offered up against a non-conventional bid.

I don't have negativity against that or any bid so long as your reasons for playing it are proper, which I have certainly doubted (or at least doubted your ability to be able to demonstrate) but never mind that. My problem was with your complete lack of disclosure since you seemed to be refusing to tell your opponents (or us) the hands you open 3NT with. You then wanted us to tell you what you should tell your opponents. Tell them what sorts of hands you open 3NT with! Now that we have seen them you could say something like 'may be balanced in so and so range, or unbalanced with a long minor in so and so range and no four card major', something like that which describes what the hands may be. That would be completely fine, rather than your explanation which was about as useful as 'when I feel like it'.

Quote

jdonn, on Feb 27 2007, 02:53 AM, said:

Let me repeat once more. This is your job, not mine. You are the one who seems to have decided that there is no definition since any hand you feel like can make the bid. What if you just defined the bid as "when I want to", how would that be any different!

While I've already told how I was doing my job before this thread started, and I've told how I will use this thread to do this job better. You, who do not like this job, have nothing to suggest so far. In other words, do you want to take shots from the sidelines, or do you want to provide any constructive assistance here?

I certainly had avoided trying to assist, since I don't care for the attitude you showed regarding explaning your bid. Rather than playing with semantics about 'convention' and 'natural' and quoting a bunch of rules that you think justify what you were doing, why not just explain your bids better than you think you have to? It leaves no doubts at all that your intentions are pure and you aren't trying to hide anything, assures that your opponents can not be disadvantaged against a bid that is surely unfamiliar, and frankly should help you feel good about yourself.
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#140 User is offline   glen 

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Posted 2007-February-27, 20:27

jdonn, on Feb 27 2007, 09:18 PM, said:

Your answer to that suggestion was 'if we played that method we would have to play conventions we don't want to play', which was ridiculous.

How can you call it "ridiculous" to not want to play a method because it would impose playing conventions with it? Okay, you can throw out "ridiculous" if you want, but it makes no sense to do so.

jdonn, on Feb 27 2007, 09:18 PM, said:

I don't have negativity against that or any bid so long as your reasons for playing it are proper, which I have certainly doubted (or at least doubted your ability to be able to demonstrate) but never mind that.

"I don't have negativity ... as long as" - this certain seems to be that you are agreeing that you are negative on this, but "never mind that".

jdonn, on Feb 27 2007, 09:18 PM, said:

My problem was with your complete lack of disclosure since you seemed to be refusing to tell your opponents (or us) the hands you open 3NT with.

Where is it where I refused to tell my opponents, or you, the hands I open 3NT with?

jdonn, on Feb 27 2007, 09:18 PM, said:

You then wanted us to tell you what you should tell your opponents.

Since you throw out expressions such as "complete lack of disclosure" (compare to using "not full disclosure"), I wanted to know what you felt was proper disclosure, which you now, finally (after "your job, not mine" etc.), do with:

jdonn, on Feb 27 2007, 09:18 PM, said:

Tell them what sorts of hands you open 3NT with! Now that we have seen them you could say something like 'may be balanced in so and so range, or unbalanced with a long minor in so and so range and no four card major', something like that which describes what the hands may be. That would be completely fine, rather than your explanation which was about as useful as 'when I feel like it'.

Of course now that you have assisted, it seems it was with some regrets:

jdonn, on Feb 27 2007, 09:18 PM, said:

I certainly had avoided trying to assist, since I don't care for the attitude you showed regarding explaning your bid. Rather than playing with semantics about 'convention' and 'natural' and quoting a bunch of rules that you think justify what you were doing, why not just explain your bids better than you think you have to? It leaves no doubts at all that your intentions are pure and you aren't trying to hide anything, assures that your opponents can not be disadvantaged against a bid that is surely unfamiliar, and frankly should help you feel good about yourself.

Love the "should help you feel good about yourself" - what is this shot at me about? As to this thread, I've asked repeatedly for how better to explain the bid, and have indicated that I will use this help. Do you disagree with this statement?
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