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Response to take out double Should one bid minor or major

#1 User is offline   twcho 

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Posted 2007-February-12, 20:37

You are in 4th seat holding Axxx xx AJTxx xx and the bidding went: 1H - X - Pass - ?
Are you going to bid 3D or 2S? If you choose 2S, how about the hand becomes 4-1-6-2? Will you still pick the Major bid?
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#2 User is offline   firmit 

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Posted 2007-February-13, 01:58

Normally, a 2 bid should show 10-12 fit points and 4 spades. 3 is non-forcing showing 8-11 5+diamonds and normally denies a 4 card spade - not my choice even a bad 4 card spade 4-1-6-2.

However, with the idea that the right side should play the contract - I would consider bidding 2 forcing for one round, and to let partner show his 4 card spade - promising exactly 4 card major myself. This will right-side a spade contract. I can then later make a game-trial bid depending on agreement.

If he denies spades, he probably got some sound minor values, which gives me room to show a nice 5 card with 3. I would expect partner to fully "see" my hand as: 4 spades, 5+ diamonds with invitational values in the two suits; 10-12 fit points with a suit contract.

With 4-1-6-2 I actually got some game going values. Investigating slam may be a long shot, so I would start the same way; 2. Simple preference in spade from partner, makes it easy to jump to game. All other bids from partner, makes things interesting!
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#3 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2007-February-13, 05:50

2. pd asked me a question and I'll answer it.
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#4 User is offline   Mr. Dodgy 

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Posted 2007-February-13, 06:17

I like 2 too
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#5 User is offline   SoTired 

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Posted 2007-February-13, 08:08

2S - Textbook... Can't bid 2H because that would be game-forcing in this auction

Make it more difficult: Jxxx xx AKJxxx x
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#6 User is offline   jtfanclub 

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Posted 2007-February-13, 08:47

Huh. I'm used to playing cue-with-no-X-available as invitational or better.

Is that just a holdover from my youth? And if so, what do you bid with:

AKx xxx Axx xxxx? Wrongsiding the contract could be fatal.
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#7 User is offline   kenberg 

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Posted 2007-February-13, 09:52

As far as I know the auction
1H X Pass 2H
Pass 2S Pass 3S
can be passed.

Improve my spades to as little as AJxx instead of Axxx and I think I would bid 2H intending to raise the expected 2S to a passable 3. The chances of partner escaping a trump loser, say with KTxx, have improved. As it is I think 2S is enough. I would not bid my diamonds even if I had six. I agree that it gets more iffy with weaker spades, but I still bid my spades. If I have spades, and if it appears partner has spades, it seems right to bid spades.
Ken
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#8 User is offline   firmit 

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Posted 2007-February-13, 10:07

jtfanclub, on Feb 13 2007, 04:47 PM, said:

Huh. I'm used to playing cue-with-no-X-available as invitational or better.

Is that just a holdover from my youth? And if so, what do you bid with:

AKx xxx Axx xxxx? Wrongsiding the contract could be fatal.

Same approach:

(1)-X-(p)-2*
(p) - 2

I have no trouble passing partners 2 with 3 card support (though I would like to have 4-but given your example...), or 3/ for that matter - denying 4 spades given partner may t/o with a 3 card spades.
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#9 User is offline   kenberg 

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Posted 2007-February-13, 13:49

Another word on
1H X Pass 2H
Pass 2S pass 3S
as a passable sequence.

If this is not allowed as a passable sequence then it seems that after 1H-X-Pass fourth hand will jump to 2S with the given hand and with a stronger hand must choose between the same jump to 2S and a game forcing 2H. Surely there are hands where you wish to show something stronger than the given hand without forcing to game. What else would 3S be besides invitational to 4? A slam try? Seems less likely to be useful.
Ken
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#10 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2007-February-13, 14:17

I play 2H here as an absolute gameforce. The only situation where I may not have a gameforce is when I have an invitational hand with both majors. This can only occur after a minor suit opening of course.

So here I bid 2S. With AKx xxx Axx xxxx I think I'd bid 3C, although 1NT may be better. I'd probably make it even if they can take the first 5 heart tricks, while 3C could be in sserious trouble when partner has the wrong hand.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#11 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2007-February-13, 14:53

For me this is an automatic 2 bid. If I were 4=6 in the pointed, then I'd really like to know the exact hand, since this would be a close decision, but I generally aim for the major fit. Note, however, that if I am 4=1=6=2, and RHO hasn't raised s, then there is a powerful inference that partner doesn't hold the classic 4=1=4=4 shape. As an aside, I have long found it useful to assume, until and unless evidence points to the contrary, that the takeout double is based on a minimum opening with 4441 shape, short in the doubled suit: this is a useful guide for competitive auctions/evaluation.

I am also more likely to upgrade a 4=6 hand via 2 than a 4=5 hand. I play that the cue establishes a force until we have bid and raised a suit or we have reached game. Thus, here, if I were to cue and then raise partner's 2 bid to 3, that would be non-forcing. However, I would not cue this hand: it is just a little light: were I 5=2=4=2, I might be more inclined to do it.
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#12 User is offline   HeartA 

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Posted 2007-February-14, 00:29

I would bid 2H, intending to force to game (yes!).
Senshu
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#13 User is offline   Edmunte1 

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Posted 2007-February-14, 02:19

I play 2as GF any hand or both minors and 9+hcp. I'll bid 2 with 4+5, but with A9xx x AJ10xxx xx i'll force to game
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