[aida_mk_nl]

Dealer South, and after his opening bid 1♦ as West I overcalled this hand (which I am not happy with
xx
KJ10xx
J10x
KQx

and bidding goes...

1♦-1♥-p-1♠-p-2♥-p-3♦-p-???

anyone?

greetings

Aida

This post has been edited by aida_mk_nl: 2006-December-05, 14:34

[Blofeld]

I think the 1♥ bid was fine, but I don't like the 2♥ rebid. If 1♠ isn't forcing, I'll just pass; if it is, I think I'll pick 1NT as my distortion of choice.

Having bid 2♥, I'll now own up to some spade support with 3♠ ... I can hardly have three.

[Apollo81]

aida_mk_nl, on Dec 5 2006, 04:18 PM, said:

Dealer South, and after his opening bid  1♦ as West I overcalled this hand  (which I am not happy with
xx
KJ10xx
J10x
KQx

and bidding goes...

1♦-1♥-p-1♠-p-2♥-p-3♦-p-???

anyone?

greetings

Aida

I would bid 1NT over 1♠ whether 1♠ was forcing or not - move the ♦J to ♠ and I pass.
Your 1♥ overcall is auto.

3♠ seems like the best option over 3♦, as other people have said. Pard can bid 3NT with a partial if hes not passing.

[neilkaz]

The 1♥ overcall is automatic. I used to feel and play that 1♠ could be passed but now prefer to play that 1 over 1's in response to an overcall are 1 round forces. I find it easier to bid this way and to not have to worry about missing ♠ when I hold a minimal hand 4513 distribution and the opening was 1♣ for example. If I make a take out double with the above hand, and 1♦ is the response or worse yet advancer competes to 2 or 3♦ with a 5 carder, I am not at all happy. So now I can just show my 5 card suit and overcall 1♥ since advancer can bid a forcing 1♠ with 7+ HCP (less with good cards) and a reasonable 4 card suit.

As it stands, I would respond 1NT to 1♠ whether it is forcing or not and wouldn't be terribly concerned that an unraised or rebid 1♦ opening is going to bury me. PD can always ask for a stopper later with 3♦.

On the hand given, I think PD has a very strong hand and that we have good play for 3NT. The opps may only take 4♦ tricks and we may take the next 9, or perhaps PD has a stiff K or Qx.

I'll bid 3NT..who knows, maybe they'll believe me and not lead a D even if they can run 5 tricks for fear of giving me my 9th trick with my "stopper".

.. neilkaz ..

[Robert]

Hi everyone

Playing (1m)-1H-p-1S forcing showing 4+ spades creates as many problems as it solves IMO.

If that 1S bid is not forcing, bidding 1NT in reply with this ace less wonder and 'no diamond stopper' is taking that first step out of the airplane while wondering 'if' I happen to be wearing a parachute? You normally will be wearing a parachute, however, 'if' you forgot, that sudden stop at the end of your jump might well prove fatal.

Just a matter of bidding style, I have tried both methods and I feel that it is a close decision. I currently play non forcing 1S bids after a 1H overcall.

Regards,
Robert

[helene_t]

I'd bid 2♣ over 1♠ (assuming that it's forcing as in French standard. Otherwise pass).

Having bid 2♥, I bid 3♠ over 3♦.

[Codo]

IF 1 ♠ had been non forcing, there had been no problem.
I learned, that rebidding your suit is the weakest nonfit bid you have, so 2 ♥ was normal.
Now I bid 3 ♠, as I had denied good support already.

[pclayton]

Far from clear if 1♠ should be forcing or not. I play it forcing under the premise of why would we want to play exactly 1♠?

The subsequent bidding indicates to me that it was intended as forcing. Over 1♠, I can live with a 1N or a 2♣ rebid. I don't like 2♥. Over 3♦, I'll show my belated ♠xx, but I don't like the way the auction has progressed.