Is partner showing extras? Does this bid show extras after a x?
#1
Posted 2006-November-28, 08:01
1 ♥ on my left-double by partner-pass-1 nt (8-11 and a ♥ stopper)
2 ♥- 3 ♦ by partner
? Does partner's 3 ♦ bid show extras?
I had a ♦ fit with him, so I bid 3 nt. He said he was just competing; I said it showed extras. Some said he should just overcall 2 ♦ on his first turn (which I also said-and with a nice fit will raise), others said he should double again, asking me to bid, showing support for the other suits.
Partner had ♠KQXX ♥ A ♦ ATXXX, ♣ JXX
Thanks,
Patsy
#2
Posted 2006-November-28, 08:12
You play 1NT as 8-11. I don't think that is mainstream, though. 6-9(10) is more common.
Roland
#3
Posted 2006-November-28, 08:13
I think 3♦ shows extras but that it's non-forcing.
#4
Posted 2006-November-28, 08:14
Why? Because with extras you'd have 25 hcp (or close to that) and would consequently bid 2 or 3NT, not 3♦.
#5
Posted 2006-November-28, 08:18
whereagles, on Nov 28 2006, 04:14 PM, said:
I don't agree. If he has a strong hand (18+) with say 4-1-6-2 it is not at all certain that NT is the right spot. You could even have a diamond slam on when 3NT fails.
Roland
#6
Posted 2006-November-28, 08:42
3♦ HAS to show extras (a 'GOSH'=good one suited hand). If he thinks he wants to play a suit contract opposite any 4333 by you, he can double again, suggesting some extras (but there might be people who'd play that double as penalty). With this hand, though, he has to pass.
George Carlin
#7
Posted 2006-November-28, 09:16
Walddk, on Nov 28 2006, 02:18 PM, said:
whereagles, on Nov 28 2006, 04:14 PM, said:
I don't agree. If he has a strong hand (18+) with say 4-1-6-2 it is not at all certain that NT is the right spot. You could even have a diamond slam on when 3NT fails.
Roland
With 18 hcp you can make a cue-bid instead of bidding 3♦, no?
The point is there is little need for 3♦ to show a strong hand because strong hands have alternative ways to be bid (cue, 2NT, 3NT, etc). It is the competitive hand that has little options but to bid its suit. And competitive hands come up far more often than slammish hands. Especially if opps opened the bidding.
Of course, you can always 'steal' 2NT and make it artificial and dump all competitive hands into it. However, 2NT as natural is useful here.
#8
Posted 2006-November-28, 09:43
I'd expect a cue to be a strong hand with something like typical takeout double shape.
#9
Posted 2006-November-28, 09:53
#10
Posted 2006-November-28, 09:54
whereagles, on Nov 28 2006, 05:16 PM, said:
Walddk, on Nov 28 2006, 02:18 PM, said:
whereagles, on Nov 28 2006, 04:14 PM, said:
I don't agree. If he has a strong hand (18+) with say 4-1-6-2 it is not at all certain that NT is the right spot. You could even have a diamond slam on when 3NT fails.
Roland
With 18 hcp you can make a cue-bid instead of bidding 3♦, no?
Apparently, you prefer to torture partner with an unassuming cue bid when you have a natural bid available.
♠ KQ64
♥ 7
♦ AKJ873
♣ AQ
If I understand you correctly, you now bid 3♥ over RHO's 2♥. How do you expect your partner to know that this shows a strong diamond suit? And what is he supposed to respond with
♠ J52
♥ A108
♦ Q95
♣ 6532
3NT and 6♦ both require ♣K onside (almost 100% on the auction). I am strongly opposed to using unassuming cue bids when you have natural, descriptive bid at hand. And yes, I do play 3♦ on this action as forcing after a constructive 1NT response.
Roland
#11
Posted 2006-November-28, 10:19
In my opinion, what you gain by adding precision in strong auctions (1% of the time) does not compensate the loss of competition in the other 99% of the time.
#12
Posted 2006-November-28, 10:23
in my view, bidding 3D here is totally diffeent from what it would be if your initial response had been, say, 2C. Of course 2C could be nothing more than the need to respond to the double. When you bid 1N you define your hand within a narrow range and your partner should be able to act on that. So, imo, 3D simply means that given the 1N response by you, and the 2H on his right, he thinks 3D is a good place to play the hand. For him to think that to be the case he probably has more than a bare minimum double and probably five diamonds. As he has.
To look at it in a different way, suppose he passes and you have a modest hand (flattish with a 9 or 10 count) for your 1N response. Would you not feel that you have already described your hand and therefore pass it out? I would. Not bidding the same values twice is a fine idea in bridge. So if 3 D is to be reached, he must bid it.
#13
Posted 2006-November-28, 10:49
whereagles, on Nov 28 2006, 06:19 PM, said:
In my opinion, what you gain by adding precision in strong auctions (1% of the time) does not compensate the loss of competition in the other 99% of the time.
It's not for doubler to compete. He already showed his hand when he doubled. It was a double within the minimum range, and it's unsound to tell the same story twice.
His partner won't be particularly happy to hear him "compete" when he has a 3-4-2-4 shape. It won't be a devastating shock for him that you have a 14 count with a 4-1-5-3 pattern.
Roland
#14
Posted 2006-November-28, 11:07
Anyway, you can play 3♦ as strong if you want, but I pretty much doubt you'll be doing the right thing, statistically speaking.
#15
Posted 2006-November-28, 12:02
#16
Posted 2006-November-28, 17:46
Besides, there are plenty of calls available in the rare event that you want to force to game after partner bid 1NT. You can double 2♥, you can cuebid, or you can bid 3NT either directly or via a scrable 2NT. And a very strong one-suiter without a heart stop may have overcalled 3♥.
If you play ELC, a double of hearts does not guarantee club support. Hence you could have a minimum double with four spades and longer diamonds. This could go via 2NT (which is primarily competivie with both minors). Then a direct 3♦ bid is invitational.
As for 3♣, you can't have it both ways, you must decide if that's invitational or competitive. Unless you give up the scrabling 2NT and play that as good/bad. Then you could play a double as both minors. But I think a double should be somewhat penalty-oriented,
#17
Posted 2006-November-28, 18:56
Anyway, doubling-then-bidding a new suit shows a strong hand, too strong to overcall in the first place. There are obvious exceptions to this (1C-X-P-2C-?-2H), but I don't see how the sequence of this thread can be an exception without special agreements.
#18
Posted 2006-November-28, 18:58
helene_t, on Nov 29 2006, 01:46 AM, said:
Quite often I would say.
#19
Posted 2006-November-28, 19:11
#20
Posted 2006-November-28, 19:11