[awm]

You're playing fairly standard methods in a swiss teams, when you are dealt the following hand:

Scoring: IMP

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It's two passes to you. What's your opening bid?

If you open 1♣, partner responds 1♥ (amazingly both opponents pass for now). What's your rebid?

[kenrexford]

For fun, I'm opening 3NT (Gambling). If partner has a void in clubs, he will pull 3NT, and I'll bid 4♠. My partner is brilliant and can work this out as a choice bid.

If partner passes, he has a stiff club -- I hope they are 2-2 or a spade entry is there. He probably also has diamonds and hearts stopped and is crossing his fingers on spades.

Sure, 3NT might be wrong. But, I bet it works.

The funny part will be the strange look when he holds diamond stoppers and the club Queen.

The best part is that I feel confident in an ability to plausibly recover no matter what threat of disaster develops.

[hrothgar]

Depends to some extent on who I'm playing against...

If I'm playing a strong team, I'd probably just open 6♣. As I've noted in the past, I don't like burning too many cycles on freaks.

There's roughly a 56% chance that partner has either the Ace of Spades or the Ace of Hearts. Add on the possibility that partner has the Ace of Diamonds and we get a Diamond off the KQJ or some such, and I'm not terribly worried that the opps have 2 cashing tricks. Sure, clubs might mis-behave, but such is life.

Balanced against this, the chance of a grand seems small. The odds that partner has both key Aces is only 11% or so. Yes, a glorious scientific auction might give me all the information that I need, but honestly, I'd expecting lots of interference. In short, I think 6♣ is the most practical bid.

If I'm playing a weak team and expect an uncontested auction, i'd open 1♣ and then rebid 2♠

[mike777]

2clubs.

I think this hand is worth 10 playing tricks and I have an outside control.

If the opp's are silent, unlikely, and partner bids 2d promising some random A or K's I will rebid 4clubs asking partner to cuebid. This may lead to 6clubs down.....
If partner denies any aces or kings I will just rebid 5 clubs.

My plan is to give up on finding 44 spade fit with 8 clubs.

[HeartA]

8-4, I would insists my 8-carder, since pd didn't respond 1S.

[mike777]

Quite a range of options. Some open 6clubs, others open a nonforcing one club and rebid a nonforcing 1s or 3clubs, wow.

[pbleighton]

5C, but I wouldn't argue with a pd who opened 1C.

I don't like 2C on this hand type, but others do.

Peter

[hrothgar]

pbleighton, on Sep 8 2006, 03:32 AM, said:

5C, but I wouldn't argue with a pd who opened 1C.

I don't like 2C on this hand type, but others do.

Peter

I can't understand a 5♣ opening...

5♣ isn't particularly well defined and provides zero bidding space for exploration.

Furthermore, if I have zero information about partner's hand, I prefer a 6♣ to a 5♣ contract. If you're going to blast, blast to the 6 level.

[zasanya]

Whats wrong with 1♣ followed by 2♠?Seems to solve all my problems since its forcing and doesnt promise more than 4 ♠ and i can always bid 5♣ any time after that.

[the hog]

I open 1C and over 1H bid 1S. Please don't tell my you play this as non forcing; I couldn't possibly play it that way.
2C incidentally is out of the question with such a lack of defensive values.

[Codo]

We play, that a 4 NT opening asks for specific aces, so this would be my bid.
Without this, I bid 1 Club followed by 2 Spade. 1 Spade had been forcing too, but 2 Spade shows more of the trick takig potential of my hand.

[whereagles]

Agree with hog. I'll bid 1♠ as well. I believe it's the technically correct bid because if pard has a 44xx, he'll support me and I'll be in pretty good shape. And if he bids something else, I always have a 5/6♣ bid in reserve.

I wouldn't be worried of it being forcing or non-forcing. I'm pretty sure the bidding won't end here.

[Blofeld]

kenrexford, on Sep 7 2006, 05:33 PM, said:

For fun, I'm opening 3NT (Gambling). If partner has a void in clubs, he will pull 3NT, and I'll bid 4♠. My partner is brilliant and can work this out as a choice bid.

The major problem I see with this strategy is that 3NT in 3rd seat isn't the tightly defined 'gambling' hand it is in 1st or 2nd - at least for me, and I'd thought for the majority of players who've considered the matter.

All it shows is a desire to play 3NT. Partner will just about never pull it.

For what it's worth, I bid 6♣.

[kenrexford]

Blofeld, on Sep 8 2006, 07:25 AM, said:

kenrexford, on Sep 7 2006, 05:33 PM, said:

For fun, I'm opening 3NT (Gambling).  If partner has a void in clubs, he will pull 3NT, and I'll bid 4♠.  My partner is brilliant and can work this out as a choice bid.

The major problem I see with this strategy is that 3NT in 3rd seat isn't the tightly defined 'gambling' hand it is in 1st or 2nd - at least for me, and I'd thought for the majority of players who've considered the matter.

All it shows is a desire to play 3NT. Partner will just about never pull it.

For what it's worth, I bid 6♣.

Yeah, it was "just for fun." But, I am definitely not "tightly defined."

I still bet that 3NT would be passed out and make more often than not. LOL

[starfruit]

What about the issue of being Vul against not? While it might not be a big consideration for some, I do know some pairs who loves to sacrifice at this vulnerability. If playing against them, I know that there's an additional chance that they might guess wrongly to come in with ♦s and present me with free 500s and 800s, so there's even more appeal for the immediate blast. If it turns out to be a 2 way slam, that's just life.

After 1♣-1♥, if 1♠ is forcing, why not? In fact it looks good as it saves bidding space.
However if you suspect that LHO is ready to come in with some nasty surprises, perhaps a 2♠ instead of a 1♠ bid would net you different responses from partner after LHO bids his ♦s. I would guess that 2♠ setting up a game force might enable you to find out that partner actually has some goodies if he made a forcing pass over the assumed 5♦ preempt that's about to come in. If that happens I would be happy to bid confidently to 6♣.
Otherwise we probably can't tell if partner has passed over 5♦ with a major suit ace also with some random queen and jacks. Even if he doubles, I doubt we can sensibly guess whether that's from a trump stack or just something like a maximum hand.

If LHO keeps quiet too, the jump hasn't cost us anything much.

[the hog]

"perhaps a 2♠ instead of a 1♠ bid "

In this part of the world, many would think that 2S was a "Love" bid.
A love bid? A mini splinter! Love is a mini splintered thing.
Sorry!!!!

[awm]

So here's what actually happened. The hand in question opened 1♣ and rebid 1♠ (non-forcing) over 1♥. Partner raised to 3♠. Opener cuebid 4♣ and partner tried to sign off in 4♠. At this point the opponents decided it was finally time to enter the auction and bid 5♦ over 4♠. Opener decided to pass and pull as a slam try, transferring the blame to responder. However, after the pass and pull, the other opponent bid 6♦. Now responder re-transferred the blame by passing again, and opener bid 6♠. This was promptly doubled in opener's right. Partner's hand was:

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Spades broke 4-1, and the ace of diamonds lead doomed 6♠. Declarer was somewhat lucky to get out for two down. 6♣ is making. 5♦ is making the other way. Likely a win for opening 6♣, as it is by no means clear that opponents would find a 6♦ call over it.

[whereagles]

Ok, so it went down. But isn't it cold on a 3-2 break...?

[HeartA]

Hiding the S fit may get you into 6C and opps, seeing you have only one suit fit, may not find their D fit.

[the hog]

"The hand in question opened 1♣ and rebid 1♠ (non-forcing)"

Hmm. Is there anyone who plays this as non forcing? If so please tell me what the rationale is.

The latter auction was like something out of Keystone Cops. First opposition bidding at the 5 level....poor judgement all round.