[msjennifer]

 sheilafran, on 2015-April-13, 02:07, said:

North
♠AQxxx
♥Ax
♦AJx
♣Qxx

Playing 2/1 do you open 1NT or 1C planning on rebidding 2NT

If you open the sequence 1NT bidding is easy ... partner having

South
♠Kx
♥KQJx
♦Kxx
♣Axxx

It would go 1NT 4NT 6NT

but if you open 1S.. how would you suggest the bidding should go.

Also when should you upgrade 17 points and a five card suit?

[msjennifer]

I do not like to play 2/1 as game forcing.My style is old fashioned I.e. 2/1 is forcing to 2NT or 3 of a suit only.However playing any way I shall open 1Spade since 6 controls,full 17HCP plus a five card good major means the hand is too strong to be opened as 1NT.The bidding will then go,
1S---2C
3NT (the hand is worth 18 HCP by virtue of AQxxx suit.)
Check Aces by simple Blackwood (No suit agreed as yet) and bid 6NT.after finding one King missing.

[case_no_6]

First off, if you can open 1C on a balanced hand with a 5 card major, you cannot call it 2/1. Nobody would even think of 1C with such a hand and if you and your partner have an agreement that you can open 1C on such hands, you are in violation of both the laws and the spirit of fair competition if you do not alert it. And, in the U.S., you would need to pre-alert it - assuming it were even allowed under the prevailing convention chart for the event. That is how weird and so not standard a 1C opening bid is for someone representing to play 2/1.

Second, if you do open 1NT, it is decidedly weird to respond 4NT rather than look for a heart fit with such a stellar heart suit AND an ace or king in each side suit. So your proposed auction 1NT-4NT, 6NT seems strange at best. Even if you think 4NT is right, how could opener not bid 6S (choice of slams)?

Regardless, to answer your questions:

1. I do open 1NT. I am not one who believes that you avoid showing a balanced hand just because you have a 5 card suit that happens to be a major.

2. If I open 1S, I will be treating this hand as a balanced 18 HCP hand and, then, there is a very straightforward and automatic and standard 2/1 auction that makes it a snap to bid 6NT:

1S - 2C(a)
3NT(b)- 6NT©
P

(a) natural, game forcing
(b) 5S(332) and 18 to 19 HCP
( c) 2 balanced hands with a total of 34 to 35 HCP belongs in slam

I really don't understand why this hand would be an issue for standard bidders.

[mikeh]

 case_no_6, on 2015-April-14, 08:33, said:

First off, if you can open 1C on a balanced hand with a 5 card major, you cannot call it 2/1.

Most of us here recognize that this was a typo....the OP was suggesting 1♠

Quote

2. If I open 1S, I will be treating this hand as a balanced 18 HCP hand and, then, there is a very straightforward and automatic and standard 2/1 auction that makes it a snap to bid 6NT:

1S - 2C(a)
3NT(b)- 6NT©
P

(a) natural, game forcing
(b) 5S(332) and 18 to 19 HCP
( c) 2 balanced hands with a total of 34 to 35 HCP belongs in slam

I really don't understand why this hand would be an issue for standard bidders.

Please explain how you justify playing 6N opposite a hand such as AQJxx Ax Axx Kxx?

I think the problem here, for 'standard' or 2/1 players isn't reaching 6N. It is knowing how to either get to or avoid 7N.

I used to play a 2♣ relay method, where the 2♣ response was artificial, and on these hands we would have been able to find out about the spade J (albeit at a very high level, but still below 6N), and been able to make an informed decision, but I don't see how standard bidding can deal with this issue.

[dboxley]

I would open 1S but since I play both 2N and 3N are raises and a 2/1 implies 5+ card suit,the only option is a forcing 1NT response planning to catch up later. The bidding would go 1S - 1NT - 2NT (17-19) - 6NT. Why would you ever want to be in 7 even if N has the SJ?

[masse24]

 case_no_6, on 2015-April-14, 08:33, said:

[T]here is a very straightforward and automatic and standard 2/1 auction (emphasis added) that makes it a snap to bid 6NT:

1S - 2C(a)
3NT(b)- 6NT©
P

(a) natural, game forcing
(b) 5S(332) and 18 to 19 HCP
( c) 2 balanced hands with a total of 34 to 35 HCP belongs in slam

Megan,
I don't consider it "standard" to jump to 3NT with 18-19. With 18-19, I prefer to rebid 2NT, (yes it can also show 12-14) intending to show the 18-19 hand with 4NT over partner's 3NT.
The jump to 3NT being reserved for roughly 15-17 hands deemed inappropriate for a 1NT open. The 3NT jump also having two small cards in parter's suit.

Standard? Heck if I know. I would be curious about how others play this 3NT jump.

[aguahombre]

 masse24, on 2015-May-07, 18:29, said:

Megan,
I don't consider it "standard" to jump to 3NT with 18-19. With 18-19, I prefer to rebid 2NT, (yes it can also show 12-14) intending to show the 18-19 hand with 4NT over partner's 3NT.
The jump to 3NT being reserved for roughly 15-17 hands deemed inappropriate for a 1NT open. The 3NT jump also having two small cards in parter's suit.

Standard? Heck if I know. I would be curious about how others play this 3NT jump.

The only 15-17 hands with 5 spades inappropriate for a 1NT opening and which can't raise clubs are:

1) 5-3-3-2 17 loaded with primes which intend to treat it as 18-19.
2) Hands with a red suit to bid over 2C.

Therefore, you can have two paths after a 2C response to 1S holding 18-19 specifically 5=3=3=2.

A) Direct 3NT rebid
B) The 2-step 2N then 4N.

The direct 3NT, while shape and size specific, does preclude Responder's intent to support your spades at the 3-level --- making 4S forcing. The space gobbled up might be a problem.

So, probably the Direct 3NT should be the one with really great Spades to get that part out of the way -- and the slow way used with the run-of-the-mill 18-19 and mediocre spades. If Responder does bid 3S over 2NT, you can bid 3NT "serious" with the biggie.

[jogs]

My preference is with 5332 open 1NT with 15-16 points.
Treat 17 as you would a 18-19 point hand.

A real ugly 17 may be opened 1NT.